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  • How do I get Asp.net MVC BeginForm to add closing tag correctly?

    - by Matt
    I seem to be missing something obvious here, but cannot see what it is. My problem is that the closing form tag for BeginForm is not being added to my markup. I am looping through a collection and creating a form for each item, but the forms arent closing properly. Any suggestions please? Thanks <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("EditUser","Users")) { %> <tr> <td> <input id="contactID" type="hidden" value="<%= item.ContactID %>" /> <%=item.Email %> </td> <td> <%=item.Market.MarketName%> </td> <td> <%=item.ContactType.ContactTypeName%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Edit" /> </td> </tr> <%} %> <% } %>

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  • Checkbox alignment in Internet Explorer, Firefox and Chrome

    - by Andrej
    Checkbox alignment with its label (i.e., vertical centering) cross different web browsers makes me crazy. Pasted below is standard html code: <label for="ch"><input id="ch" type="checkbox">My Checkbox</label> I tested different CSS tricks (e.g., link 1, link 2); most solutions works fine in FF, but are completely off in Chrome or IE8. I'm looking for any references or pointers to solve this issue. Thanks in advance. EDIT According to Elq suggestion I modified the HTML <div class="row"> <input type="checkbox" id="ch1" /> <label for="ch1">Test</label> </div> and CSS .row{ display: table-row; } label{ display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle; } Works now in Firefox, Internet Explorer 8, and Chrome on Windows. Fails on Firefox and Chrome on Linux. Also works in Firefox and Safari on Mac, but fails on Chrome.

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • How to get child nodes after store load

    - by Azincourt
    Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

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  • Convenient way to do "wrong way rebase" in git?

    - by Kaz
    I want to pull in newer commits from master into topic, but not in such a way that topic changes are replayed over top of master, but rather vice versa. I want the new changes from master to be played on top of topic, and the result to be installed as the new topic head. I can get exactly the right object if I rebase master to topic, the only problem being that the object is installed as the new head of master rather than topic. Is there some nice way to do this without manually shuffling around temporary head pointers? Edit: Here is how it can be achieved using a temporary branch head, but it's clumsy: git checkout master git checkout -b temp # temp points to master git rebase topic # topic is brought into temp, temp changes played on top Now we have the object we want, and it's pointed at by temp. git checkout topic git reset --hard temp Now topic has it; and all that is left is to tidy up by deleting temp: git branch -d temp Another way is to to do away with temp and just rebase master, and then reset topic to master. Finally, reset master back to what it was by pulling its old head from the reflog, or a cut-and-paste buffer.

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  • How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

    - by David Garcia
    So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

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  • jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

    - by user1352530
    HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

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  • CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

    - by thesunneversets
    So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

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  • What can i use to journal writes to file system

    - by Dmitry
    Hello, all I need to track all writes to files in order to have synchronized version of files on different place (server or just other directory, not considerable). Let it: all files located in same directory feel free to create some system files (e.g. SomeFileName.Ext~temp-data) no one have concurrent access to synced directory; nobody spoil ours meta-files or change real-files before we do postponed writes (like a commits) do not to care recovering "local" changes in case of crash; system can just rolled back to state of "server" by simple copy from it significant to have it transparent to use (so programmer must just call ordinary fopen(), read(), write()) It must be guaranteed that copy of files which "server" have is consistent. That is whole files scope existed in some moment of time. They may be sufficiently outdated but it must be fair snapshot of all files at some time. As i understand i should overload writing logic to collect data in order sent changes to "server". For example writing to temporary File~tmp. And so i have to overload reads in order program could read actual data of file. It would be great if you suggest some existing library (java or c++, it is unimportant) or solution (VCS customizing?). Or give hints how should i write it by myself. edit: After some reading i have more precision requirements: I need COW (Copy-on-write) wrapper for fopen(),fwrite(),.. or interceptor (hook) WriteFile() and other FS api system calls. Log-structured file system in userspace would be a alternative too.

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  • How can I correctly calculate the direction for a moving object?

    - by Jakub Hampl
    I'm solving the following problem: I have an object and I know its position now and its position 300ms ago. I assume the object is moving. I have a point to which I want the object to get. What I need is to get the angle from my current object to the destination point in such a format that I know whether to turn left or right. The idea is to assume the current angle from the last known position and the current position. I'm trying to solve this in MATLAB. I've tried using several variations with atan2 but either I get the wrong angle in some situations (like when my object is going in circles) or I get the wrong angle in all situations. Examples of code that screws up: a = new - old; b = dest - new; alpha = atan2(a(2) - b(2), a(1) - b(1); where new is the current position (eg. x = 40; y = 60; new = [x y];), old is the 300ms old position and dest is the destination point. Edit Here's a picture to demonstrate the problem with a few examples: In the above image there are a few points plotted and annotated. The black line indicates our estimated current facing of the object. If the destination point is dest1 I would expect an angle of about 88°. If the destination point is dest2 I would expect an angle of about 110°. If the destination point is dest3 I would expect an angle of about -80°.

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  • C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

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  • PHP Ampersand in String

    - by John
    Hello. I'm having a bit of a problem. I am trying to create an IRC bot, which has an ampersand in its password. However, I'm having trouble putting the ampersand in a string. For example... <?php $var = "g&abc123"; echo $var; ?> I believe this should print g&abc123. However it's printing g. I have tried this as well: <?php $arr = array("key" => "g&abc123"); print_r($arr); ?> This prints it correctly with the g&abc123, however when I say echo $arr['key']; it prints g again. Any help would be appreciated. I'm running PHP5.3.1. EDIT: Also, I just noticed that if I use g&abc123&abc123 it prints g&abc123. Any suggestions?

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  • PendingIntent sent from a notication.

    - by totem
    Hi, What im trying to accomplish is to send a notification through the notification manager that once clicked will do something in the application only if its currently running. i have tried to use: notification.contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, nNotificationCounter, Someintent, PendingIntent.FLAG_NO_CREATE) Which allways caused an exception once trying to use the notify. I switched to: Notification notification = new Notification(icon, tickerText, when); RemoteViews contentView = new RemoteViews(getPackageName(), R.layout.some_notification); contentView.setTextViewText(R.id.title, sTitle); contentView.setTextViewText(R.id.text, sText); notification.contentView = contentView; notification.defaults |= Notification.DEFAULT_SOUND; notification.number = nNotificationCounter; Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, MainWindow.class).setAction(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER); notification.contentIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, nNotificationCounter, notificationIntent, 0); and although this code doesn't cause an exception. it doesnt call my BroadcastReceiver which is defined as follows: public class IncomingReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if (intent.getAction().equals(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER)) { System.out.println("GOT THE INTENT"); return; } } } and set in the onCreate: IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER); IncomingReceiver receiver = new IncomingReceiver(); context.registerReceiver(receiver, filter); Does anyone see something wrong with the code? Or how would i go about to get messages when the notification is clicked, but not create any activity if it isn't already created. edit: added the intent creation and notification creation. Thanks, Tom

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  • Child Activity in Android

    - by Martin Marinov
    So I have two Activities. The main is called Main, and the child one is called Child. When a button is clicked in the main activity it triggers the following piece of code: Intent i = new Intent(Main.this, Child.class); Main.this.startActivity(i); That opens the Child activity. As soon as I call finish() or press the back button within the child activity instead of going back to the main one, the app just closes. Can you give me a hint where the problem might be :( P.S. By trial and error I found out that if edit AndroidManifest.xml and add android:theme="@android:style/Theme.Dialog" within the declaration of Child the back button and calling finish() behaves as expected: closes the child activity and brings the main into focus. The problem is that when I start typing in an EditText the screen starts flickering (rather bizzare). So I can't use it as a dialog. My main activity uses the camera, so that might be making problems. Although when the child activity is started, the onPause event is fired and it stops the camera until onResume is called.

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  • Developing on a windows machine that interacts with a linux system

    - by Jamie
    Sorry for the bad title (couldn't think of a better way to describe it) I have a windows machine which I do development on. However, I have a new project which needs to interact with a linux system (executing linux commands etc.). So, obviously I can't do development on my windows machine..and I don't wish to code on the dev machine, svn commit and then svn update it on the linux machine. Is there a way where any changes I make on my dev machine will be quickly mirrored to the linux machine? SVN is not a very quick alternative and of course some changes will be very minor. Any ideas? A network share I guess....but that's not very pretty (bit slow too). As fellow developers I would like to know if you've been in a similar situation and how you've resolved it. On a furthernote, I can't just install Ubuntu as my development machine and mirror the commands, applications etc. from the linux machine because it's a cluster 'master' machine and so therefore it has quite a special configuration. Thanks guys! EDIT: I've also thought about having web services on the linux machine and then just calling them from code thus seperating platform development dependency. What do you think about that too? thanks

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  • Java Socket Returns True

    - by ikurtz
    I hope you can help. Im fairly new to progamming and Im playing around with java Sockets. The problem is the code below. for some reason commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); is returning true even when it has not connected with the server (server not implemented yet!). Any ideas regarding this situation? For hostName Im passing my local machine IP and for port a manually selected port. public void networkConnect(String hostName, int portNumber){ try { networkConnected = false; netMessage = "Attempting Connection"; NetworkMessage networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); // this returns true!! System.out.println(commSocket.isConnected()); networkConnected = true; netMessage = "Connected: "; System.out.println("hellooo"); } catch (UnknownHostException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } Many thanks. EDIT: new Socket(.., ..); is blocking isnt it? i thought in that case if that was processed without exceptions then we have a true connection?

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  • What issues might I have in opening .NET 2.0 Projects in Visual Studio 2010?

    - by Ben McCormack
    The small software team I work on recently got approved to upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 (we're currently using VS 2005). We have several ASP.NET 2.0 and WinForms (in .NET 2.0) projects in production. I've been tasked with downloading VS 2010 and seeing how well it plays with our current projects. What issues should I be aware of when targeting older applications in VS 2010? If I open a VS 2005 project in VS 2010, will it still place nicely when my teammate goes back to open the project in VS 2005? Will we have to upgrade projects to work in VS 2010 (assuming the projects themselves aren't upgraded to .NET 4)? Can I use VS 2010 to edit legacy VB6 apps (just kidding)? I'm excited to work with the newest software, but we're concerned about running into development snags on production applications that are already working just fine. NOTE: I started a bounty in hopes of getting a more detailed answer to this question. Perhaps the answer really is as simple as those already provided, but I'm interested in more feedback regarding our options to transition from using VS 2005 to VS 2010.

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  • Initialize child models at model creation

    - by Antoine
    I have a model Entree which belongs to a model Vin, which itself belongs to a model Producteur. On the form for Entree creation/edition, I want to allow the user to define the attributes for parent Vin and Producteur to create them, or retrieve them if they exist (retrieval based on user input). For now I do the following in Entree new and edit actions: @entree = Entree.new @entree.vin = Vin.new @entree.vin.producteur = Producteur.new and use fields_for helper in the form,and that works. But I intend to have much more dependencies with more models, so I want to keep it DRY. I defined a after_initialize callback in Vin model which does the producteur initialization: class Vin < ActiveRecord::Base after_initialize :vin_setup def vin_setup producteur = Producteur.new end end and remove the producteur.new from the controller. However, get an error on new action: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class for the line in the form that says <%= fields_for @entree.vin.producteur do |producteur| %> I guess that means the after_initialize callback doesn't act as I expect it. Is there something I'm missing? Also, I get the same error if I define a after_initialize method in the Vin model instead of definiing a callback.

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  • Is memory allocation in linux non-blocking?

    - by Mark
    I am curious to know if the allocating memory using a default new operator is a non-blocking operation. e.g. struct Node { int a,b; }; ... Node foo = new Node(); If multiple threads tried to create a new Node and if one of them was suspended by the OS in the middle of allocation, would it block other threads from making progress? The reason why I ask is because I had a concurrent data structure that created new nodes. I then modified the algorithm to recycle the nodes. The throughput performance of the two algorithms was virtually identical on a 24 core machine. However, I then created an interference program that ran on all the system cores in order to create as much OS pre-emption as possible. The throughput performance of the algorithm that created new nodes decreased by a factor of 5 relative the the algorithm that recycled nodes. I'm curious to know why this would occur. Thanks. *Edit : pointing me to the code for the c++ memory allocator for linux would be helpful as well. I tried looking before posting this question, but had trouble finding it.

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  • Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

    - by Will
    I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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  • When I get the Force Close dialog, I have a Report button. Where did it come from?

    - by BenTobin
    I feel a little bit silly asking this, but I haven't been able to find any answers on my own. My Force Close dialog has a "Report" button. I think it's a great idea, and I wish everyone had it. At first, I thought it must be something I turned on without realizing it, but not only can't I find any setting that I might have touched, I also can't find any reference to this button existing on the Internet. I have a Droid, and I know 4 other people with Droids, and they say they don't have the option to report Force Closes. Am I special? Am I just missing something? The "report" button has been there for at least a few weeks now. When I use the Report button, I get a screen with a "feedback" field and a checkbox for "Include system data". Below that , it says "Information from feedback reports will be shown to the developer of the application." Under that are Preview and Send buttons. As a developer, I've never received one of these reports. I'd try to send a report to myself, but it seemingly only shows the button for apps installed from the market, and I don't know of a way to crash my production app. I suppose I could publish a simple crashing app just to try it out, but I thought I'd ask you folks first. Edit: You can view screenshots here: http://bentobin.com/crashReportImages/

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  • iPhone crashing when presenting modal view controller

    - by Michael Waterfall
    I'm trying to display a modal view straight after another view has been presented modally (the second is a loading view that appears). - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load LoadViewController *loader = [[LoadViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController: loader animated:NO]; [loader release]; } But when I do this I get a "Program received signal: "EXC_BAD_ACCESS"." error. The stack trace is: 0 0x30b43234 in -[UIWindowController transitionViewDidComplete:fromView:toView:] 1 0x3095828e in -[UITransitionView notifyDidCompleteTransition:] 2 0x3091af0d in -[UIViewAnimationState sendDelegateAnimationDidStop:finished:] 3 0x3091ad7c in -[UIViewAnimationState animationDidStop:finished:] 4 0x0051e331 in run_animation_callbacks 5 0x0051e109 in CA::timer_callback 6 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific 7 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode 8 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal 9 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun 10 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain 11 0x00002154 in main at main.m:14 Any ideas? I'm totally stumped! The loading view is empty so there's definitely nothing going on in there that's causing the error. Is it something to do with launching 2 views modally in the same event loop or something? Thanks, Mike Edit: Very strange... I have modified it slightly so that the loading view is shown after a tiny delay, and this works fine! So it appears to be something within the same event loop! - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load [self performSelector:@selector(doit) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.1]; } - (void)doit { [self presentModalViewController:loader animated:YES]; }

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  • Give More Prominence To DIV or <P> That Is After Floating DIV

    - by Aahan Krish
    Consider this HTML: <div id="entry-content"> <div id="my-300px-ad">AD CODE HERE</div> <p><img src="file.jpg" alt="file" /></p> <p>SOME TEXT</p> <p>SOME MORE TEXT</p> </div> Now, consider that the div#my-300px-ad is floating right. Would it be possible for me to have the image in the next paragraph show up before the ad so that the TEXT in its following paragraphs can wrap around the ad? For example, like this: Why so...? The thing is, due to various reasons (including Google) I want to avoid placing an ad in BETWEEN the post's content. CSS only I am sure that something like this would be possible with some JavaScript code. But I am looking for a CSS-based solution only. (Cross-browser compatibility, = IE8) Please note that ONLY the CSS of div#my-300px-ad can be changed. Nothing else should be touched as this is not a static HTML page, besides they are articles. PS: It was hard to frame a one-line question for this. Please feel free to edit the question's title if it can be made more clear.

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