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  • Defining and using controller methods in ember.js

    - by OriginalEXE
    first of all, I am total noob when it comes to OOP in JS, this is new to me so treat me like a noob. I am building my first ember.js application and I am stuck (not the first time but I would get unstuck by myself, this is a tough one though). I have two models: forms entries Entries is of course in (one to many) relationship to forms, so each form can have as many properties. Form properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), title : DS.attr( 'string' ), views : DS.attr( 'number' ), conversion : DS.attr( 'number' ), entries : DS.hasMany( 'entry' ) Entry properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), parent_id: DS.belongsTo( 'form' ) Now, I have forms route that displays all forms in tabled view, and each table row has some info like form id, name etc. and that works great. What I wanted to do is display the number of entries each form has. I figured I should do that via controller, so here is my controller now: // Form controller App.FormController = Ember.ObjectController.extend({ entriescount: function() { var entries = this.get( 'store').find( 'entry' ); return entries.filterBy( 'parent_id', this.get( 'id' ) ).get( 'length' ); }.property( '[email protected]_id') }); Now for some reason, when I use {{entriescount}} in {{#each}} loop, this returns nothing. It also returns nothing in single form route. Note that in both cases, {{title}} for example works. I am wondering, am I going the right way by using controller for this, and how do I get controller to output the data. Thanks

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  • Hadoop File Read

    - by user3684584
    Hadoop Distributed Cache Wordcount example in hadoop 2.2.0. Copied file into hdfs filesystem to be used inside setup of mapper class. protected void setup(Context context) throws IOException,InterruptedException { Path[] uris = DistributedCache.getLocalCacheFiles(context.getConfiguration()); cacheData=new HashMap(); for(Path urifile: uris) { try { BufferedReader readBuffer1 = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(urifile.toString())); String line; while ((line=readBuffer1.readLine())!=null) { System.out.println("**************"+line); cacheData.put(line,line); } readBuffer1.close(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e.toString()); } } } Inside Driver Main class Configuration conf = new Configuration(); String[] otherArgs = new GenericOptionsParser(conf,args).getRemainingArgs(); if (otherArgs.length != 3) { System.err.println("Usage: wordcount <in> <out>"); System.exit(2); } Job job = new Job(conf, "word_count"); job.setJarByClass(WordCount.class); job.setMapperClass(Map.class); job.setReducerClass(Reduce.class); job.setOutputKeyClass(Text.class); job.setOutputValueClass(IntWritable.class); FileInputFormat.addInputPath(job, new Path(otherArgs[0])); Path outputpath=new Path(otherArgs[1]); outputpath.getFileSystem(conf).delete(outputpath,true); FileOutputFormat.setOutputPath(job,outputpath); System.out.println("CachePath****************"+otherArgs[2]); DistributedCache.addCacheFile(new URI(otherArgs[2]),job.getConfiguration()); System.exit(job.waitForCompletion(true) ? 0 : 1); But getting exception java.io.FileNotFoundException: file:/home/user12/tmp/mapred/local/1408960542382/cache (No such file or directory) So Cache functionality not working properly. Any Idea ?

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  • ojspc always returns 0 on errors

    - by Matt McCormick
    In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

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  • Any problems with this C++ const reference accessor interface idiom?

    - by mskfisher
    I was converting a struct to a class so I could enforce a setter interface for my variables. I did not want to change all of the instances where the variable was read, though. So I converted this: struct foo_t { int x; float y; }; to this: class foo_t { int _x; float _y; public: foot_t() : x(_x), y(_y) { set(0, 0.0); } const int &x; const float &y; set(int x, float y) { _x = x; _y = y; } }; I'm interested in this because it seems to model C#'s idea of public read-only properties. Compiles fine, and I haven't seen any problems yet. Besides the boilerplate of associating the const references in the constructor, what are the downsides to this method? Any strange aliasing issues? Why haven't I seen this idiom before?

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  • jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

    - by Martin
    I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

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  • Recursive powerof-function, see if you can solve it

    - by Jonas B
    First of all, this is not schoolwork - just my curiousity as I for some reason can't get my head around it and solve it. I come up with these stupid things all the time and it annoys the hell out of me when I cant solve them. Code example is in C# but solution doesn't have to be in any particular programming-language. long powerofnum(short num, long powerof) { return powerofnum2(num, powerof, powerof); } long powerofnum2(short num, long powerof, long holder) { if (num == 1) return powerof; else { return powerof = powerofnum2(num - 1, holder * powerof, holder); } } As you can see I have two methods. I call for powerofnum(value, powerofvalue) which then calls the next method with the powerofvalue also in a third parameter as a placeholder so it remembers the original powerof value through the recursion. What I want to accomplish is to do this with only one method. I know I could just declare a variable in the first method with the powerof value to remember it and then iterate from 0 to value of num. But as this is a theoretical question I want it done recursively. I could also in the first method just take a third parameter called whatever to store the value just like I do in the second method that is called by the first, but that looks really stupid. Why should you have to write what seems like the same parameter twice? Rules explained in short: no iteration scope-specific variables only only one method Anyhow, I'd appreciate a clean solution. Good luck :)

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Excel VBA creating a new column with formula

    - by Amatya
    I have an excel file with a column which has date data. I want the user to input a date of their choosing and then I want to create a new column that lists the difference in days between the two dates. The Macro that I have is working but I have a few questions and I would like to make it better. Link to MWE small data file is here. The user input date was 9/30/2013, which I stored in H20 Macro: Sub Date_play() Dim x As Date Dim x2 As Date Dim y As Variant x = InputBox(Prompt:="Please enter the Folder Report Date. The following formats are acceptable: 4 1 2013 or April 1 2013 or 4/1/2013") x2 = Range("E2") y = DateDiff("D", x2, x) MsgBox y 'Used DateDiff above and it works but I don't know how to use it to fill a column or indeed a cell. Range("H20").FormulaR1C1 = x Range("H1").FormulaR1C1 = "Diff" Range("H2").Formula = "=DATEDIF(E2,$H$20,""D"")" Range("H2").AutoFill Destination:=Range("H2:H17") Range("H2:H17").Select End Sub Now, could I have done this without storing the user input date in a particular cell? I would've preferred to use the variable "x" in the formula but it wasn't working for me. I had to store the user input in H20 and then use $H$20. What's the difference between the function Datedif and the procedure DateDiff? I am able to use the procedure DateDiff in my macro but I don't know how to use it to fill out my column. Is one method better than the other? Is there a better way to add columns to the existing sheet, where the columns include some calculations involving existing data on the sheet and some user inputs? There are tons of more complicated calculations I want to do next. Thanks

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  • String comparison in Python: is vs. ==

    - by Coquelicot
    I noticed a Python script I was writing was acting squirrelly, and traced it to an infinite loop, where the loop condition was "while line is not ''". Running through it in the debugger, it turned out that line was in fact ''. When I changed it to != rather than 'is not', it worked fine. I did some searching, and found this question, the top answer to which seemed to be just what I needed. Except the answer it gave was counter to my experience. Specifically, the answerer wrote: For all built-in Python objects (like strings, lists, dicts, functions, etc.), if x is y, then x==y is also True. I double-checked the type of the variable, and it was in fact of type str (not unicode or something). Is his answer just wrong, or is there something else afoot? Also, is it generally considered better to just use '==' by default, even when comparing int or Boolean values? I've always liked to use 'is' because I find it more aesthetically pleasing and pythonic (which is how I fell into this trap...), but I wonder if it's intended to just be reserved for when you care about finding two objects with the same id.

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  • C# - Calling ToString() on a Reference Type

    - by nfplee
    Given two object arrays I need to compare the differences between the two (when converted to a string). I've reduced the code to the following and the problem still exists: public void Compare(object[] array1, object[] array2) { for (var i = 0; i < array1.Length; i++) { var value1 = GetStringValue(array1[i]); var value2 = GetStringValue(array2[i]); } } public string GetStringValue(object value) { return value != null && value.ToString() != string.Empty ? value.ToString() : ""; } The code executes fine no matter what object arrays I throw at it. However if one of the items in the array is a reference type then somehow the reference is updated. This causes issues later. It appears that this happens when calling ToString() against the object reference. I have updated the GetStringValue method to the following (which makes sure the object is either a value type or string) and the problem goes away. public string GetStringValue(object value) { return value != null && (value.GetType().IsValueType || value is string) && value.ToString() != string.Empty ? value.ToString() : ""; } However this is just a temporary hack as I'd like to be able to override the ToString() method on my reference types and compare them as well. I'd appreciate it if someone could explain why this is happening and offer a potential solution. Thanks

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  • I get NaN when I try to insert some HTML into a DIV element with jQuery

    - by Ankur
    I am tring to display a text box when a element of class numObj is clicked. For some reason I get NaNNaNaNaNNaNNaNaNaN where I expect to the see the result of the searchForm variable in the code below. I know that NaN stands for Not a Number. What I don't understand is why is Javascript expecting a number? I can't understand why it cares. $(".numObj").live('click',function(){ var preId = $(this).attr('preId'); var arrayPos = $(this).attr('numArrayPos'); alert(preId +" "+arrayPos); var searchForm = "<table border='0' cellspacing='0' cellpadding='4' id='add-tag2'>"+ +"<tr class='normal'><td bgcolor='#EEEEEE' valign='bottom' nowrap='nowrap'><span class='normal-small'>"+ +"<input name='predicate-name2' type='text' class='normal' id='predicate-name2' size='4' />"+ +"</span></td>"+ +"<td bgcolor='#EEEEEE' valign='bottom' nowrap='nowrap'><span class='normal-small'>&lt;=</span></td>"+ +"<td bgcolor='#EEEEEE' valign='bottom' nowrap='nowrap'>x</td>"+ +"<td valign='bottom' bgcolor='#EEEEEE'>&lt;=</td>"+ +"<td valign='bottom' bgcolor='#EEEEEE'><span class='normal-small'>"+ +"<input type='text' name='object-object2' id='object-object2' class='normal' size='4' />"+ +"</span></td>"+ +"</tr>"+ +"</table>"; $(".numObj").filter("[preId='"+preId+"']").filter("[numArrayPos='"+arrayPos+"']").html(searchForm); }); The generated code that has the numObj class looks something like this <td><div class="numObj" preid="73" numarraypos="5"><span class="normal">585.0</span></div></td>

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  • Fastest way to perform subset test operation on a large collection of sets with same domain

    - by niktech
    Assume we have trillions of sets stored somewhere. The domain for each of these sets is the same. It is also finite and discrete. So each set may be stored as a bit field (eg: 0000100111...) of a relatively short length (eg: 1024). That is, bit X in the bitfield indicates whether item X (of 1024 possible items) is included in the given set or not. Now, I want to devise a storage structure and an algorithm to efficiently answer the query: what sets in the data store have set Y as a subset. Set Y itself is not present in the data store and is specified at run time. Now the simplest way to solve this would be to AND the bitfield for set Y with bit fields of every set in the data store one by one, picking the ones whose AND result matches Y's bitfield. How can I speed this up? Is there a tree structure (index) or some smart algorithm that would allow me to perform this query without having to AND every stored set's bitfield? Are there databases that already support such operations on large collections of sets?

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  • Android Signal 11 (SIGSEGV)

    - by Naturjoghurt
    I read many posts here and on other sites, but can not find the problem creating my Error: I use an AsyncTask because I want to easily manipulate the UI Thread before and after Execution. In doInBackground I create a ThreadPoolExecutor and execute Runnables. If I only execute 1 Runnable with the Executor, there is no Problem, but if I execute another Runnable I get following Error: 06-26 18:00:42.288: A/libc(25073): Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV) at 0x7f486162 (code=1), thread 25106 (pool-1-thread-2) 06-26 18:00:42.304: D/dalvikvm(25073): GC_CONCURRENT freed 119K, 2% free 8908K/9056K, paused 4ms+4ms, total 45ms 06-26 18:00:42.327: I/System.out(25073): In Check All with Prefix: a and Length: 4 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Build fingerprint: 'google/yakju/maguro:4.2.2/JDQ39/573038:user/release-keys' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Revision: '9' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): pid: 25073, tid: 25106, name: pool-1-thread-2 >>> de.uni_duesseldorf.cn.distributed_computing2 <<< 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): signal 11 (SIGSEGV), code 1 (SEGV_MAPERR), fault addr 7f486162 ... 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): memory map around fault addr 7f486162: 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): 60292000-60391000 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): (no map for address) 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): bed14000-bed35000 [stack] I set up the ThreadPoolExecutor like this: // numberOfPackages: Number of Runnables to be executed public void initializeThreadPoolExecutor (int numberOfPackages) { int corePoolSize = Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors(); int maxPoolSize = numberOfPackages; long keepAliveTime = 60; final BlockingQueue workingQueue = new LinkedBlockingQueue(); executor = new ThreadPoolExecutor(corePoolSize, maxPoolSize, keepAliveTime, TimeUnit.SECONDS, workingQueue); } I have no clue, why it fails when starting the second Thread. Maybe Memory Leaks? Any Help appreciated. Thanks in Advance

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  • Javascript memory leak/ performance issue?

    - by Tom
    I just cannot for the life of me figure out this memory leak in Internet Explorer. insertTags simple takes string str and places each word within start and end tags for HTML (usually anchor tags). transliterate is for arabic numbers, and replaces normal numbers 0-9 with a &#..n; XML identity for their arabic counterparts. fragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for (i = 0, e = response.verses.length; i < e; i++) { fragment.appendChild((function(){ p = document.createElement('p'); p.setAttribute('lang', (response.unicode) ? 'ar' : 'en'); p.innerHTML = ((response.unicode) ? (response.surah + ':' + (i+1)).transliterate() : response.surah + ':' + (i+1)) + ' ' + insertTags(response.verses[i], '<a href="#" onclick="window.popup(this);return false;" class="match">', '</a>'); try { return p } finally { p = null; } })()); } params[0].appendChild( fragment ); fragment = null; I would love some links other than MSDN and about.com, because neither of them have sufficiently explained to me why my script leaks memory. I am sure this is the problem, because without it everything runs fast (but nothing displays). I've read that doing a lot of DOM manipulations can be dangerous, but the for loops a max of 286 times (# of verses in surah 2, the longest surah in the Qur'an).

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  • jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

    - by Wipqozn
    I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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  • filling colors on a map - PHP

    - by jeremy
    I am trying to determine how to fill colors onto a map - such as the "Risk" board game map. I've done this before with HTML tables, by pulling an HTML color code from a SQL table and then just using it to fill the cell the color I want it. But for a non-square map, I'm not sure where to look. I have created a very simple two color map - its white with black borders. My desired result is having the 'regions' on the map shaded with a color, based on data in a sql table (just like the "fill" button in Paint). This looks like what I need: http://php.net/manual/en/function.imagefilltoborder.php and now.. how to define the borders... At the moment I have tried nothing, because the question was: how do I have PHP fill parts of an image? I have tried making an image in Paint, and then scratching my head wondering how to fill parts of it. Having stumbled upon a link, let me focus this a bit more: It appears that with imagefilltoborder that I can put an image on my server, perhaps one that looks like a black and white version of the RISK map - black borders and white everything else. Some questions: Is it correct that the 'border' variable should use the color of my border (whatever value black is) so that the code can "see" where the border is? Is it correct that I'll just need to figure out X,Y coords to begin the fill? Does this work if I have 10 different spots to fill on the map? Can I use varying colors from code or pulled from SQL to assign different colors to those 10 spots, and use 10 different X,Y coords to get them all?

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  • Why does my simple event handling example not work?

    - by njreed
    I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

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  • User will input some filter criteria -- how can I turn it into a regular expression for String.match

    - by envinyater
    I have a program where the user will enter a string such as PropertyA = "abc_*" and I need to have the asterisk match any character. In my code, I'm grabbing the property value and replacing PropertyA with the actual value. For instance, it could be abc_123. I also pull out the equality symbol into a variable. It should be able to cover this type of criteria PropertyB = 'cba' PropertyC != '*-this' valueFromHeader is the lefthand side and value is the righthand side. if (equality.equals("=")) { result = valueFromHeader.matches(value); } else if (equality.equals("!=")) { result = !valueFromHeader.matches(value); } EDIT: The existing code had this type of replacement for regular expressions final String ESC = "\\$1"; final String NON_ALPHA = "([^A-Za-z0-9@])"; final String WILD = "*"; final String WILD_RE_TEMP = "@"; final String WILD_RE = ".*"; value = value.replace(WILD, WILD_RE_TEMP); value = value.replaceAll(NON_ALPHA,ESC); value = value.replace(WILD_RE_TEMP, WILD_RE); It doesn't like the underscore here... abcSite_123 != abcSite_123 (evaluates to true) abcSite_123$1.matches("abcSite$1123") It doesn't like the underscore...

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  • Does F# documentation have a way to search for functions by their types?

    - by Nathan Sanders
    Say I want to know if F# has a library function of type ('T -> bool) -> 'T list -> int ie, something that counts how many items of a list that a function returns true for. (or returns the index of the first item that returns true) I used to use the big list at the MSR site for F# before the documentation on MSDN was ready. I could just search the page for the above text because the types were listed. But now the MSDN documentation only lists types on the individual pages--the module page is a mush of descriptive text. Google kinda-sorta works, but it can't help with // compatible interfaces ('T -> bool) -> Seq<'T> -> int // argument-swaps Seq<'T> -> ('T -> bool) -> int // type-variable names ('a -> bool) -> Seq<'a> -> int // wrappers ('a -> bool) -> 'a list -> option<int> // uncurried versions ('T -> bool) * 'T list -> int // .NET generic syntax ('T -> bool) -> List<'T> -> int // methods List<'T> member : ('T -> bool) -> int Haskell has a standalone program for this called Hoogle. Does F# have an equivalent, like Fing or something?

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  • Creating a process in ASP.NET MVC controller

    - by GRKamath
    I have a requirement to run an application through my MVC controller. To get the installation path I used following link (I used answer provided by Fredrik Mörk). It worked and I could able to run the exe through a process. The problem occurred when I deployed this solution on IIS where it did not create the process as it was creating in local dev environment. Can anybody tell me how to create a windows process through a solution which is hosted on IIS ? private string GetPathForExe(string fileName) { private const string keyBase = @"SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\MyApplication"; RegistryKey localMachine = Registry.LocalMachine; RegistryKey fileKey = localMachine.OpenSubKey(string.Format(@"{0}\{1}", keyBase, fileName)); object result = null; if (fileKey != null) { result = fileKey.GetValue("InstallPath"); } fileKey.Close(); return (string)result; } public void StartMyApplication() { Process[] pname = Process.GetProcessesByName("MyApplication"); if (pname.Length == 0) { string appDirectory = GetPathForExe("MyApplication"); Directory.SetCurrentDirectory(appDirectory); ProcessStartInfo procStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("MyApplication.exe"); procStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo = procStartInfo; proc.Start(); } }

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  • While loop not reading in the last item

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I'm trying to read in a multi line string then split it then print it .. here is the string : 1T1b5T!1T2b1T1b2T!1T1b1T2b2T!1T3b1T1b1T!3T3b1T!1T3b1T1b1T!5T1*1T 11X21b1X 4X1b1X When I split the string with ! I get this without the last line string : 1T1b5T 1T1b5T1T2b1T1b2T 1T2b1T1b2T1T1b1T2b2T 1T1b1T2b2T1T3b1T1b1T 1T3b1T1b1T3T3b1T 3T3b1T1T3b1T1b1T 1T3b1T1b1T5T1*1T 5T1*1T11X21b1X 11X21b1X Here is my code : import java.io.BufferedInputStream; import java.util.Scanner; public class Main { public static void main(String args[]) { Scanner stdin = new Scanner(new BufferedInputStream(System.in)); while (stdin.hasNext()) { for (String line : stdin.next().split("!")) { System.out.println(line); for (int i = 0; i < line.length(); i++) { System.out.print(line.charAt(i)); } } } } } Where did I make the mistake, why is not reading in the last line? After I read in all lines properly I should go trough each line if I encounter number I should print the next char the n times the number I just read, but that is long way ahead first I need help with this. Thank you UPDATE : Here is how the output should look like : 1T1b5T 1T2b1T1b2T 1T1b1T2b2T 1T3b1T1b1T 3T3b1T 1T3b1T1b1T 5T1*1T 11X21b1X 4X1b1X Here is a solution in C(my friend solved it not me), but I'd stil wanted to do it in JAVA : #include <stdio.h> int main (void) { char row[134]; for (;fgets (row,134,stdin)!=NULL;) { int i,j=0; for (i=0;row[i]!='\0';i++) { if (row[i]<='9'&&row[i]>='1') j+=(row[i]-'0'); else if ((row[i]<='Z'&&row[i]>='A')||row[i]=='*') for (;j;j--) printf ("%c",row[i]); else if (row[i]=='b') for (;j;j--) printf (" "); else if (row[i]=='!'||row[i]=='\n') printf ("\n"); } } return 0; }

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  • JavaScript: List global variables in IE

    - by Quandary
    I'm trying to get the instance name of my class. The way I do this is I loop through all global objects and compare it with the this pointer. It works in Chrome and FF, but in IE, it doesn't. The problem seems to be the global variables don't seem to be in window. How can I loop through the global variables in IE ? PS: I know it only works as long as there is only one instance, and I don't want to pass the instance's name as a parameter. function myClass() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in this.global) { if (this.global[name] == this) return name } } } function myClass_chrome() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in window) { if (window[name] == this) return name ; } } ; } // store the global object, which can be referred to as this at the top level, in a // property on our prototype, so we can refer to it in our object's methods myClass.prototype.global = this //myClass_IE.prototype.global = this // create a global variable referring to an object // var myVar = new myClass() var myVar = new myClass_chrome() //var myVar = new myClass_IE() alert(myVar.myName() );// returns "myVar"

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  • IndexOutOfRangeException when a stream is a multiple of the buffer size

    - by dnord
    I don't have a lot of experience with streams and buffers, but I'm having to do it for a project, and I'm stuck on an exception being thrown when the stream I'm reading is a multiple of the buffer size I've chosen. Let me show you: My code starts by reading bufferSize (100, let's say) bytes from the stream: numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); Then, I loop through a while loop: while (numberOfBytesRead == bufferSize) { BufferWriter.Write(output); BufferWriter.Flush(); index += bufferSize; numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); } ... and, once we get to a non-bufferSize read, we know we've hit the end of the stream and can move on. But if the bufferSize is 100, and the stream is 200, we'll read positions 0-99, 100-199, and then the attempt to read 200-299 errors out. I'd like it if it returned 0, but it throws an error. What I'm doing to handle that is, well, a try-catch: catch (System.IndexOutOfRangeException) numberOfBytesRead = 0; ...which ends the loop, and successfully finishes the thing, but we all know I don't want to control code flow with error handling. Is there a better (more standard?) way to handle stream reading when the stream length is unknown? This seems like a small wrinkle in a fairly reasonable strategy for reading streams, but I just don't know if I've got it wrong or what. The specifics of this (which I've cleaned up a little bit for posting) are a MySqlDataReader hitting a LARGEBLOB column. It's working whenever the buffer is larger than the number of returned bytes, or when the number of returned bytes is not a multiple of bufferSize. Because we don't, in that case, throw an IndexOutOfRangeException.

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