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  • How to use AD/GPO/Print Services to "push out" a new printer driver to replace a broken one? How did my server get a broken driver?

    - by Zac B
    Context: We have an AD/GPO-managed corporate network with a little over a hundred PCs running Windows 7 x64, and a few managed printers. Our Server2008R2 primary domain controller is configured as a print server for them all. Problem: After a recent windows update and restart (no printer driver updates were included) on the DC, a particular shared printer (Lexmark T650) has begin exhibiting some strange behavior. First, it prints a preceding and following blank page for almost every document, on jobs submitted by about half of client machines (no separator page is configured on the server or any of the clients I've seen). Second, whenever someone tries to access "Printing Preferences" on any client, they recieve the following error message (this happens everywhere, 100% of the time, and didn't happen before the update on the DC): Once they click "OK", the prefs screen appears (with no separator page selected) and everything seems fine. I'm not even sure if these two issues are related, but everyone seems affected by one or both of those issues. What I've Tried: I've been hesitant to un-deploy the problem printer, or remove it via GPO, as it's pretty heavily used. I've tried updating (via MS update and our internal WSUS server) client machines and the DC. No printer driver updates have appeared, and no number of updates or restarts on the server or the client seems to have achieved anything other than my boss getting grumpy that I'm bouncing the domain controller so often. I've tried deleting the drivers on the server, and re-installing them from the original source that has worked for the past year...no change. I've tried selecting "New Driver" for one of the shared printers on a client machine, running as domain admin, and pushed the latest driver found by MSupdate back up to the DC. This changed the version number of the driver recorded in the print server manager, but caused no change--on the client I pushed from, or on any other. The error still appears. Question: Why the heck is this happening? Obviously, I got a bad driver from somewhere, but how do I get rid of it? I don't know of any "roll back drivers" functionality for centrally managed print drivers like Windows offers for other devices. How would I a) get this issue resolved on a client, and b) push the fix to the other members of the domain?

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  • cd Command Linux and Mystery Flags

    - by Jason R. Mick
    Platform: CentOS 6.2 Shell:tcsh I'm playing around with cd for a BASH script, and noticed the wondrous cd - option, but was left with many questions... Why the cd -? Isn't this redundant with cd ..? EDIT [As FatalError points out, these two commands don't do the same things... so the answer is "no"] Can you delve farther back into your history with - flag, a la in a browser? e.g. When I type cd -, it takes me to my previous directory, but then if I enter that command again, it takes me to the directory I just came from, creating a sort of loop. Is a shorthand for going back multiple levels supported?EDITI realize I can go back with cd .., but was hoping this could be a gateway to a less verbose deep back, e.g. cd -3 vs. cd ../../../ ... hopefully that clarifies what I'm asking....EDIT2As to the current feedback, while .. is a special directory, I don't see a reason why the built-in cd to the terminal couldn't use a shorthand for ../../ ... ../ e.g. cd ..5 or why the built-in also couldn't have a history (a la auto pushd/popd) that could be turned on and used like cd -3. I get that this could be somewhat of security/privacy risk, but I don't see how it's any worst than storing a command history, which most shells/terminals do. The manpage for cd, accessible via man cd and help cd (it's the same for either command), only lists -L and -P flags. However when I type in cd --help it outputs Usage: cd [-plvn][-|<dir>].. Am I right in assuming the other flags and the - (back) option are nonstandard? What are the -n and -v flags for? Both seem to take me back to my home directory, that's all I've been able to figure out via experimentation. A quick read on web resources [1][2] offered just the same sort of info that the man page did and didn't answer my questions. Note: The second Linux-centric resource above claimed cd only had two options (obviously not true in current CentOS) hence my assumption that this functionality could be non-standard.

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  • Repeated requests on our server?

    - by pitty.platsch
    I encountered something strange in the access log of our Apache server which I cannot explain. Requests for webpages that I or my colleagues do from the office's Windows network get repeated by another IP (that we don't know) a couple of seconds later. The user agent repeating our requests is Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; InfoPath.2) Has anyone an idea? Update: I've got some more information now. The referrer of the replicate is set to the URL I requested before and it's not the exact same request as the protocol version is changed from 'HTTP/1.1' to 'HTTP/1.0'. The IP is not just one, it's just one of a subnet (80.40.134.*). It's just the first request to a resource that's get repeated, so it seems the "spy" is building up some kind of cache of visited places. The repeater is also picky. I tried randomly URLs with different HTTP status codes and different file patterns. 301s and 200s are redone, 404s not. Image extensions seem to be ignored. While doing my tests I discovered that this behavior seems to be common as I found other clients visiting just after the first requests: 66.249.73.184 - - [25/Oct/2012:10:51:33 +0100] "GET /foobar/ HTTP/1.1" 200 10952 "-" "Mediapartners-Google" 50.17.125.180 - - [25/Oct/2012:10:51:33 +0100] "GET /foobar/ HTTP/1.1" 200 41312 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; proximic; +http://www.proximic.com/info/spider.php)" I wasn't aware about this practice, so I don't see it that much as a threat anymore. I still want to find out who this is, so any further help is appreciated. I'll try later if this also happens if I query some other server where I have access to the access logs and will update here then.

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  • IIS6 Log time recording problems

    - by Hafthor
    On three separate occasions on two separate servers at nearly the same times, 6.9 hours seemingly went by without any data being written to the IIS logs, but, on closer inspection, it appears that it was all recorded all at once. Here's the facts as I know them: Windows Server 2003 R2 w/ IIS6 Logging using GMT, server local time GMT-7. Application was still operating and I have SQL data to prove that Time gaps appear in log file, not across two # headers appear at gap Load balancer pings every 30 seconds No caching Here's info on a particular case: an entry appears for 2009-09-21 18:09:27 then #headers the next entry is for 2009-09-22 01:21:54, and so are the next 1600 entries in this log file and 370 in the next log file. about half of the ~2000 entries on 2009-09-22 01:21:54 are load balancer pings (est. at 2/min for 6.9hrs = 828 pings) then entries are recorded as normal. I believe that these events may coincide with me deploying an ASP.NET application update into those machines. Here's some relevant content from the logs in question: ex090921.log line 3684 2009-09-21 17:54:40 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:11 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:42 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:13 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:45 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-21 18:04:37 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 3078 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 109 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 3828 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 ... continues until line 5449 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 <eof> ex090922.log #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-22 00:00:16 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... continues until line 367 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:30 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... back to normal behavior Note the seemingly correct date/time written to the #header of the new log file. Also note that /ping.aspx returned 404 then switched to 200 just as the problem started. I rename the "I'm alive page" so the load balancer stops sending requests to the server while I'm working on it. What you see here is me renaming it back so the load balancer will use the server. So, this problem definitely coincides with me re-enabling the server. Any ideas?

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  • Nginx not working properly on subdomains

    - by javipas
    I've been trying to setup a Sugar CRM instance. I've got a domain that has its main site on a server (www.domain.com) and I've created a subdomain (sugar.domain.com), but I wnat this subdomain to be hosted on another server. This second server has nginx installed, and there's a working WordPress blog there on a virtualhost, so I would need to setup a second site. To do this I've created the directory structure, and I've created a /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/sugar.domain.com configuration file that has the following: * server { listen 80; server_name sugar.domain.com *.domain.com; access_log /var/www/sugar/log/access.log; error_log /var/www/sugar/log/error.log info; location / { root /var/www/sugar; index index.php; } location ~ .php$ { fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(.*)$; fastcgi_pass backend; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /var/www/sugar/$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param QUERY_STRING $query_string; fastcgi_param REQUEST_METHOD $request_method; fastcgi_param CONTENT_TYPE $content_type; fastcgi_param CONTENT_LENGTH $content_length; fastcgi_intercept_errors on; fastcgi_ignore_client_abort on; fastcgi_read_timeout 180; } ## Disable viewing .htaccess & .htpassword location ~ /\.ht { deny all; } } upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:9000; } As far as I know, I need the *.domain.com parameter on the "server_name" flag, but something is crashing here: I get either a 403 Forbidden error, or I get PHP code (I can read the PHP file code in the browser, like normal text) that somehow is not executed. I've tried setting permissions to 755 inside the /var/www/sugar/ directory, and I've also set up the owner:group with a chown -R www-data:www-data /var/www/sugar/ The thing is, I don't now if my mistake is in the nginx site configuration, in my folder permissions, or in other place :( Could it be because of the main domain (www.domain.com) is hosted on other server? Do they have to be together necessarily?

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  • Nginx not working properly on subdomains [SOLVED]

    - by javipas
    I've been trying to setup a Sugar CRM instance. I've got a domain that has its main site on a server (www.domain.com) and I've created a subdomain (sugar.domain.com), but I wnat this subdomain to be hosted on another server. This second server has nginx installed, and there's a working WordPress blog there on a virtualhost, so I would need to setup a second site. To do this I've created the directory structure, and I've created a /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/sugar.domain.com configuration file that has the following: * server { listen 80; server_name sugar.domain.com *.domain.com; access_log /var/www/sugar/log/access.log; error_log /var/www/sugar/log/error.log info; location / { root /var/www/sugar; index index.php; } location ~ .php$ { fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(.*)$; fastcgi_pass backend; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /var/www/sugar/$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param QUERY_STRING $query_string; fastcgi_param REQUEST_METHOD $request_method; fastcgi_param CONTENT_TYPE $content_type; fastcgi_param CONTENT_LENGTH $content_length; fastcgi_intercept_errors on; fastcgi_ignore_client_abort on; fastcgi_read_timeout 180; } ## Disable viewing .htaccess & .htpassword location ~ /\.ht { deny all; } } upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:9000; } As far as I know, I need the *.domain.com parameter on the "server_name" flag, but something is crashing here: I get either a 403 Forbidden error, or I get PHP code (I can read the PHP file code in the browser, like normal text) that somehow is not executed. I've tried setting permissions to 755 inside the /var/www/sugar/ directory, and I've also set up the owner:group with a chown -R www-data:www-data /var/www/sugar/ The thing is, I don't now if my mistake is in the nginx site configuration, in my folder permissions, or in other place :( Could it be because of the main domain (www.domain.com) is hosted on other server? Do they have to be together necessarily?

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  • Repair BAD Sectors or Buy a new HDD?

    - by Nehal J. Wani
    I have a Seagate internal hard disk drive. I recently opened up my laptop [Dell Inspiron N5010] [Warranty has expired], cleaned it and it worked normally after waking up from hibernation. However, when I restarted it, it stuck on windows loading screen, then tried to boot from Dell recovery partition but failed. It gave the error: Windows has encounter a problem communicating with a device connected to your computer. This error can be caused by unplugging a removable storage device such as an external USB drive while the device is in use, or by faulty hardware such as a hard drive or CD-ROM drive that is failing. Make sure any removable storage is properly connected and then restart your computer If you continue to receive this error message, contact the hardware manufacturer. Status: 0xc00000e9 Info: An unexpected I/O error has occurred. While cleaning, I had mistakenly touched the round silvery thing at the bottom of the HDD. I don't know whether this has caused the problem or not. Since I have Fedora also installed in the same HDD, I can boot from it but it shows weird read errors when I ask it to mount Windows partitions. The disk utility also says that the Hard Disk has many bad sectors and needs to be replaced. I downloaded Seatools from Seagate website and used it. In the long test, I gave it permission to repair the first 100 errors which it did successfully. Now I am confused at what I should do. Internal Hard Disk Costs: a. Internal HDD 500GB Costs: Rs3518 b.1 External HDD 500GB Costs: Rs3472 b.2 External HDD 1TB Costs: Rs5500 c. Internal to External Converter Costs: Rs650 I have the following options: (i) Buy an External HDD, backup my data. Try to repair bad sectors of HDD. Then two cases arise: (a) My Internal HDD gets repaired [almost] (b) My internal HDD doesn't get repaired. Then I need to buy another internal HDD and replace the damaged one. OR break the seal of the external one and put it inside my laptop as internal. Breaking the case involves risks. (ii) Buy a Internal HDD and an Internal to External Converter Case [Not very reliable], backup my data. Try to repair bad sectors of HDD. Then two cases arise: (a) My Internal HDD gets repaired [almost] (b) My internal HDD doesn't get repaired. Then I need to just put in the new internal HDD I just bought. Experts, please guide me as to what will be the most VFM option? Also, if a HDD is failing, is it that I shouldn't read from it too otherwise there is a chance of other sectors failing? What I mean is, is it wrong to read from the HDD without taking backup first?

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  • .htaccess ignored, SPECIFIC to EC2 - not the usual suspects

    - by tedneigerux
    I run 8-10 EC2 based web servers, so my experience is many hours, but is limited to CentOS; specifically Amazon's distribution. I'm installing Apache using yum, so therefore getting Amazon's default compilation of Apache. I want to implement canonical redirects from non-www (bare/root) domain to www.domain.com for SEO using mod_rewrite BUT MY .htaccess FILE IS CONSISTENTLY IGNORED. My troubleshooting steps (outlined below) lead me to believe it's something specific to Amazon's build of Apache. TEST CASE Launch a EC2 Instance, e.g. Amazon Linux AMI 2013.03.1 SSH to the Server Run the commands: $ sudo yum install httpd $ sudo apachectl start $ sudo vi /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf $ sudo apachectl restart $ sudo vi /var/www/html/.htaccess In httpd.conf I changed the following, in the DOCROOT section / scope: AllowOverride All In .htaccess, added: (EDIT, I added RewriteEngine On later) RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*) http://www.domain.com/$1 [R=301,L] Permissions on .htaccess are correct, AFAI can tell: $ ls -al /var/www/html/.htaccess -rwxrwxr-x 1 git apache 142 Jun 18 22:58 /var/www/html/.htaccess Other info: $ httpd -v Server version: Apache/2.2.24 (Unix) Server built: May 20 2013 21:12:45 $ httpd -M Loaded Modules: core_module (static) ... rewrite_module (shared) ... version_module (shared) Syntax OK EXPECTED BEHAVIOR $ curl -I domain.com HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently Date: Wed, 19 Jun 2013 12:36:22 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.24 (Amazon) Location: http://www.domain.com/ Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 ACTUAL BEHAVIOR $ curl -I domain.com HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Wed, 19 Jun 2013 12:34:10 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.24 (Amazon) Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 TROUBLESHOOTING STEPS In .htaccess, added: BLAH BLAH BLAH ERROR RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*) http://www.domain.com/$1 [R=301,L] My server threw an error 500, so I knew the .htaccess file was processed. As expected, it created an Error log entry: [Wed Jun 19 02:24:19 2013] [alert] [client XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX] /var/www/html/.htaccess: Invalid command 'BLAH BLAH BLAH ERROR', perhaps misspelled or defined by a module not included in the server configuration Since I have root access on the server, I then tried moving my rewrite rule directly to the httpd.conf file. THIS WORKED. This tells us several important things are working. $ curl -I domain.com HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently Date: Wed, 19 Jun 2013 12:36:22 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.24 (Amazon) Location: http://www.domain.com/ Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 HOWEVER, it is bothering me that it didn't work in the .htaccess file. And I have other use cases where I need it to work in .htaccess (e.g. an EC2 instance with named virtual hosts). Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • Why am I unable to send an attachment with Outlook via SMTP that I am able to send via Gmail / Google Apps?

    - by cwd
    I have Google Apps installed and I have tried to set up Outlook 2007 to send messages via SMTP. I followed the guide, selecting what I believe are all the correct settings. Yes, I am using POP for incoming, that is intentional but I don't believe it should affect outgoing messages. When I log into gmail (google apps) for my company, I can send a message that has an 8MB attachment (pdf file, not zipped or anything) and it sends fine. However, when I send the same message in Outlook with that same 8mb attachment it fails. Why am I unable to send an attachment with Outlook via SMTP that I am able to send via Gmail / Google Apps? The message headers are (some info omitted for privacy): Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 552 552 #5.3.4 message size exceeds limit (state 17). ----- Original message ----- DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=company.com; s=google; h=from:to:cc:references:in-reply-to:subject:date:message-id :mime-version:content-type:x-mailer:thread-index:content-language; bh=7d4i/Cbt0v0sY3zt5lN6y5CdvxjbRmTBG4AuBuMxtF4=; b=IJwwxuIEdg1E4zXuGjeDod+1w3RYBBCNzSsqpuX77ih36HSiq++s3ZCQXPeU9CIZVg K8JPJQu9xjivYYjrRaYwyeowLIu0GIdR2h4kKEkFM/GNC2RFF3VwVgj+gvi5eqVZIuWn osT5/VEm10IED6B54NPOtGMgFTci6a57zzVKE= X-Google-DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=google.com; s=20120113; h=from:to:cc:references:in-reply-to:subject:date:message-id :mime-version:content-type:x-mailer:thread-index:content-language :x-gm-message-state; bh=7d4i/Cbt0v0sY3zt5lN6y5CdvxjbRmTBG4AuBuMxtF4=; b=LjTecjok5K71Bymp6tZqAL2XCz03hWROV1mTK8Vf2AeEJwtel9ACu9kE5jW5iJqckb upYKPzoqYLBwAPOzMb9asWoTAZPzC7LMG65eDUc2/ZEvGqXrZs3ziUxwhF4t169yRVuy /6nm/aAt5uPMLPdobxGTJ8ahOIku1Z3gW+OcvZ6ERk1Av/bvuln09vcnyJIrHGh7eK8n cbGVxmK0aecgSPgIj2NALbHkyuxwj+LEBRV6uiz3THDjxAiNfsO5UFjV59sD+lVSBT3z ThOGE8WEXRnKHuP3FuKXyeUxKBZ2CxpWJpvDuS9EsFkln7zkISYEsRA0nUA6GSGi2Z/n 8YUg== Received: by 10.60.169.197 with SMTP id ag5mr12254920oec.137.1351036287413; Tue, 23 Oct 2012 16:51:27 -0700 (PDT) References: Date: Tue, 23 Oct 2012 19:51:16 -0400 Message-ID: <003a01cdb179$4bb2ca60$e3185f20$@com> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/related; boundary="----=_NextPart_000_003B_01CDB157.C4A12A60" X-Mailer: Microsoft Office Outlook 12.0 Thread-Index: Ac2xVCHGxoC7DDOkQBK3JSXowHb0EQAEB7agAAA/YKAAAIGcQAAAngfQAABAAPAAAFe7gAAAadvw AALgvLA= Content-Language: en-us X-Gm-Message-State: ALoCoQniMq7Fnh+NlfoWjTJPvKWbkhEaftSaFo9ZVvtRpWufTmhlRDx1a9Jf+wmYcbRh896gygNr The company I am sending email to is a company that uses Google Apps for Teams. This is their apps admin login. Should I be worried about that message? My Settings On the Google apps side I have set my SPF record and set / verified my DKIM key. Here are my outlook settings: Why am I unable to send an attachment with Outlook via SMTP that I am able to send via Gmail / Google Apps?

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  • How to run a restricted set of programs with Administrator privileges without giving up Admin acces (Win7 Pro)

    - by frLich
    I have a shared system, running Windows7 X64, restricted to a 'standard user' with no password. Not everyone who has access to the system has the administrator password. This works rather well, except for some applications - specially the unlock-applications for encrypted hard drives/USB flash drives. The specific ones either require Administrator access (eg. Seagate Blackarmor) or simply fail without it -- since these programs are sending raw commands to a device, this is to be expected. I would like to be able to add the hashes of these particular programs to a whitelist, and have them run as administrator without needing any prompts. Since these are by definition on removable media, I can't simply use a filename or even a path. One of the users who shares the system can be considered 'crafty', so anything which temporarily grants administrator rights to an user account is certain to cause problems. What i'd like to be able to do: 1) Create an admin account that can only run programs from a whitelist (or, failing that, from a directory) I can't find a good way to do this: As far as I can tell, SRP applies equally to ALL users? Even if I put a "Deny" token on all directories on the system, such that new directories would inherit it, it could still potentially run things from the mounted USB devices. I also don't know whether it's possible to create a new directory that DOESN'T inherit from the parent, that would lake the deny token, and provide admin access. 2) Find a lightweight service that will run these programs in its local context Windows7 seems to block cross-privilege level communication by default, and I haven't found such for windows 7. One example seems to be "sudo" (http://pages.cpsc.ucalgary.ca/~nfriess/sudo/) but because it uses a WLNOTIFY hook, it won't work under Vista nor Windows7 Non-Solutions: - RunAs: Requires administrator password! (but everyone calls it "sudo" anyway) - RunAs /savecred: Nice idea, but appears to be completely insecure. - RUNASSPC - Same concept as RunAs, uses "encrypted" files with credentials, but checks in user-space. - Scheduled Tasks - "Fixed" permissions make this difficult, and doesn't support interactive processes even if it did. - SuRun: From Google: "Surun uses its own Windows service that adds the user to the group of administrators during program start and removes him automatically from that group again"

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  • Why would a process monitoring script use exit 1; on finding no problems?

    - by user568458
    General question: On a Linux (Centos) server, if a process monitoring script run by cron is set to close with exit 1; rather than exit 0; on finding that everything is okay and that no action is needed, is that a mistake? Or are there legitimate reasons for calling exit 1; instead of exit 0; on the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition? exit 0; on finding no problems seems to me to be more appropriate. But maybe there's something I'm not aware of. For example, maybe there's something specific to Cron? Or maybe there's a convention in process monitoring scripts that 'failure' means 'this script failed to need to fix a problem' (rather than what I would expect which is that exit 1; would mean 'the process being monitored has failed'?) My specific case: I'm looking at a process monitoring script written by my web hosting company. By process monitoring script, I mean a script executed by Cron on a regular basis that checks if an important system process is running, and if it isn't running, takes actions such as mailing an administrator or restarting the process. Here's the (generalised) structure of their script, for a service running on port 8080 (in this case, Apache Tomcat): SERVICE=$(/usr/sbin/lsof -i tcp:8080 | wc -l); if [ $SERVICE != 0 ]; then exit 1; else #take action fi Seems simple enough even for someone with limited knowledge like me, except the exit 1; part seems odd. As I understand it, exit 0; closes a program and signifies to the parent that executed the program that everything is fine, exit n; where n0 and n<127 signifies that there has been some kind of error or problem. Here, their script seems to go against that rule - it calls exit 1; in the condition where everything is fine, and doesn't exit after taking remedial action in the problem condition. To me, this looks like a mistake - but my experience in this area is limited. Are there cases where calling exit 1; in the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition is more appropriate than calling exit 0;? Or is it a mistake? Wider context is pretty simple. It's a Centos VPS, running Plesk. The script is being called by Cron via Plesk's "Scheduled tasks" Cron manager. There's no custom layer between Cron and this script that would respond in an unusual way to the exit call. It's a fairly average, almost out-of-the box Plesk-managed Centos VPS (in so far as there is such a thing). The process being monitored by this script is Apache Tomcat.

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  • Load balancers, multiple data centers and url based routing

    - by kunkunur
    There is one data center - dc1. There is a business need to setup another data center - dc2 in another geography and there might be more in the future say dc3. Within the data center dc1: There are two web servers say WS1 and WS2. These two webservers do not share anything currently. There isnt any necessity foreseen to have more webservers within each dc. dc1 also has a local load balancer which has been setup with session stickiness. So if a user say u1 lands on dc1 and if the load balancer decides to route his first request to WS1 then from there on all u1's requests will get routed to WS1. Local load balancer and webservers are invisible to the user. Local load balancer listens to the traffic on a virtual ip which is assigned to the virtual cluster of webservers ws1 and ws2. Virtual ip is the ip to which the host name is resolved to in the DNS. There are no client specific subdomains as of now instead there is a client specific url(context). ex: www.example.com/client1 and www.example.com/client2. Given above when dc2 is onboarded I want to route the traffic between dc1 and dc2 based on the client. The options that I have found so far are. Have client specific subdomains e.g. client1.example.com and client2.example.com and assign each of them with the virtual ip of the data center to which I want to route them. or Assign www.example.com and www1.example.com to first dc i.e. dc1 and assign www2.example.com to dc2. All requests will first get routed to dc1 where WS1 and WS2 will redirect the user to www1.example.com or www2.example.com based on whether the url ends with /client1 or /client2. I need help in the following If I setup a global load balancer between dc1 and dc2 do I have any alternative solutions. That is, can a global load balancer route the traffic based on the url ? Are there drawbacks to subdomain based solutions compared to www1 solution? With www1 solution I am worried that it creates a dependency on dc1 atleast for the first request and the user will see that he is getting redirected to a different url.

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  • Can't ping Ip over bridge

    - by tmn29a
    I'm unable to ping another host over a bridge I created, I can't see the error -.- It's a remote machine running debian stable with some backports for which I want to set up DHCP on the new Subnet 172.30.xxx.xxx to be used for KVM-Guests. ifconfig : bond0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr e4:11:5b:d4:94:30 inet addr:10.54.2.84 Bcast:10.54.2.127 Mask:255.255.255.192 inet6 addr: fe80::e611:5bff:fed4:9430/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MASTER MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:34277 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:18379 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:2638709 (2.5 MiB) TX bytes:2887894 (2.7 MiB) br0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr f2:fc:4d:7f:15:f0 inet addr:172.30.254.66 Bcast:172.30.254.127 Mask:255.255.255.192 inet6 addr: fe80::f0fc:4dff:fe7f:15f0/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:252 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:10800 (10.5 KiB) Pings : ping -I br0 172.30.xxx.65 PING 172.30.xxx.65 (172.30.xxx.65) from 172.30.xxx.66 br0: 56(84) bytes of data. --- 172.30.xxx.65 ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 2017ms ping -I bond0 172.30.254.65 PING 172.30.xxx.65 (172.30.xxx.65) from 10.54.2.84 bond0: 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=1 ttl=64 time=0.599 ms 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=2 ttl=64 time=0.575 ms 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=3 ttl=64 time=0.565 ms --- 172.30.x.65 ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 3 received, 0% packet loss, time 1999ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 0.565/0.579/0.599/0.031 ms Route : Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 172.30.x.64 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 br0 10.54.x.64 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 bond0 default 10.54.x.65 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 bond0 default 172.30.x.65 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 br0 The Interface : cat /etc/network/interfaces auto lo br0 iface lo inet loopback # Bonding Interface auto bond0 iface bond0 inet static address 10.54.x.84 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 10.54.x.64 gateway 10.54.x.65 slaves eth0 eth1 bond_mode active-backup bond_miimon 100 bond_downdelay 200 bond_updelay 200 iface br0 inet static bridge_ports bond0 address 172.30.x.66 broadcast 172.30.x.127 netmask 255.255.x.192 gateway 172.30.x.65 bridge_maxwait 0 If you need more info please ask. Thanks for your help !

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  • Excel 2010: dynamic update of drop down list based upon datasource validation worksheet changes

    - by hornetbzz
    I have one worksheet for setting up the data sources of multiple data validation lists. in other words, I'm using this worksheet to provide drop down lists to multiple other worksheets. I need to dynamically update all worksheets upon any of a single or several changes on the data source worksheet. I may understand this should come with event macro over the entire workbook. My question is how to achieve this keeping the "OFFSET" formula across the whole workbook ? Thx To support my question, I put the piece of code that I'm trying to get it working : Provided the following informations : I'm using such a formula for a pseudo dynamic update of the drop down lists, for example : =OFFSET(MyDataSourceSheet!$O$2;0;0;COUNTA(MyDataSourceSheet!O:O)-1) I looked into the pearson book event chapter but I'm too noob for this. I understand this macro and implemented it successfully as a test with the drop down list on the same worksheet as the data source. My point is that I don't know how to deploy this over a complete workbook. Macro related to the datasource worksheet : Option Explicit Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) ' Macro to update all worksheets with drop down list referenced upon ' this data source worksheet, base on ref names Dim cell As Range Dim isect As Range Dim vOldValue As Variant, vNewValue As Variant Dim dvLists(1 To 6) As String 'data validation area Dim OneValidationListName As Variant dvLists(1) = "mylist1" dvLists(2) = "mylist2" dvLists(3) = "mylist3" dvLists(4) = "mylist4" dvLists(5) = "mylist5" dvLists(6) = "mylist6" On Error GoTo errorHandler For Each OneValidationListName In dvLists 'Set isect = Application.Intersect(Target, ThisWorkbook.Names("STEP").RefersToRange) Set isect = Application.Intersect(Target, ThisWorkbook.Names(OneValidationListName).RefersToRange) ' If a change occured in the source data sheet If Not isect Is Nothing Then ' Prevent infinite loops Application.EnableEvents = False ' Get previous value of this cell With Target vNewValue = .Value Application.Undo vOldValue = .Value .Value = vNewValue End With ' LOCAL dropdown lists : For every cell with validation For Each cell In Me.UsedRange.SpecialCells(xlCellTypeAllValidation) With cell ' If it has list validation AND the validation formula matches AND the value is the old value If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Validation.Formula1 = "=" & OneValidationListName And .Value = vOldValue Then ' Debug ' MsgBox "Address: " & Target.Address ' Change the cell value cell.Value = vNewValue End If End With Next cell ' Call to other worksheets update macros Call Sheets(5).UpdateDropDownList(vOldValue, vNewValue) ' GoTo NowGetOut Application.EnableEvents = True End If Next OneValidationListName NowGetOut: Application.EnableEvents = True Exit Sub errorHandler: MsgBox "Err " & Err.Number & " : " & Err.Description Resume NowGetOut End Sub Macro UpdateDropDownList related to the destination worksheet : Sub UpdateDropDownList(Optional vOldValue As Variant, Optional vNewValue As Variant) ' Debug MsgBox "Received info for update : " & vNewValue ' For every cell with validation For Each cell In Me.UsedRange.SpecialCells(xlCellTypeAllValidation) With cell ' If it has list validation AND the validation formula matches AND the value is the old value ' If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Value = vOldValue Then If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Value = vOldValue Then ' Change the cell value cell.Value = vNewValue End If End With Next cell End Sub

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  • Network unreachable on Ubuntu guest after trying to set up a host only network on Virtualbox

    - by gkb0986
    I have a Mac OS X host and a bunch of guests including Ubuntu and Arch Linux. I was trying to set up a host-only network at eth1 to let me ssh into the system. But now eth0 isn't working properly either. Ubuntu can no longer connect to remote hosts or browse the internet. It tells me that the network is unreachable. What's gone wrong here? I've included some diagnostics below. $ifconfig lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:10968 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:10968 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:897264 (897.2 KB) TX bytes:897264 (897.2 KB) Other diagnostic commands and the output: $sudo lspci -n 00:00.0 0600: 8086:1237 (rev 02) 00:01.0 0601: 8086:7000 00:01.1 0101: 8086:7111 (rev 01) 00:02.0 0300: 80ee:beef 00:03.0 0200: 8086:100e (rev 02) 00:04.0 0880: 80ee:cafe 00:05.0 0401: 8086:2415 (rev 01) 00:06.0 0C03: 106B:003F 00:07.0 0680: 8086:7113 (REV 08) 00:0D.0 0106: 8086:2829 (REV 02) $sudo lshw -c network *-network DISABLED description: Ethernet interface product: 82540EM Gigabit Ethernet Controller vendor: Intel Corporation physical id: 3 bus info: pci@0000:00:03.0 logical name: eth0 version: 02 serial: 08:00:27:7d:22:df size: 1Gbit/s capacity: 1Gbit/s width: 32 bits clock: 66MHz capabilities: pm pcix bus_master cap_list ethernet physical tp 10bt 10bt-fd 100bt 100bt-fd 1000bt-fd autonegotiation configuration: autonegotiation=on broadcast=yes driver=e1000 driverversion=7.3.21-k8-NAPI duplex=full firmware=N/A latency=64 link=no mingnt=255 multicast=yes port=twisted pair speed=1Gbit/s resources: irq:19 memory:f0000000-f001ffff ioport:d010(size=8) $lsmod Module Size Used by nls_utf8 12557 1 isofs 40257 1 vboxsf 43743 2 vesafb 13844 1 snd_intel8x0 38570 2 snd_ac97_codec 134869 1 snd_intel8x0 ac97_bus 12730 1 snd_ac97_codec snd_pcm 97275 2 snd_intel8x0,snd_ac97_codec snd_seq_midi 13324 0 snd_rawmidi 30748 1 snd_seq_midi snd_seq_midi_event 14899 1 snd_seq_midi rfcomm 47604 0 snd_seq 61929 2 snd_seq_midi,snd_seq_midi_event bnep 18281 2 bluetooth 180113 10 rfcomm,bnep ppdev 17113 0 psmouse 97519 0 snd_timer 29990 2 snd_pcm,snd_seq joydev 17693 0 snd_seq_device 14540 3 snd_seq_midi,snd_rawmidi,snd_seq vboxvideo 12622 1 serio_raw 13211 0 snd 79041 11 snd_intel8x0,snd_ac97_codec,snd_pcm,snd_rawmidi,snd_seq,snd_timer,snd_seq_device soundcore 15091 1 snd vboxguest 235498 7 vboxsf parport_pc 32866 0 drm 241971 2 vboxvideo i2c_piix4 13301 0 snd_page_alloc 18529 2 snd_intel8x0,snd_pcm mac_hid 13253 0 lp 17799 0 parport 46562 3 ppdev,parport_pc,lp usbhid 47238 0 hid 99636 1 usbhid e1000 108589 0

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  • Apache certificates for some urls not working

    - by Vegaasen
    We are having a rather strange problem with a Apache-installation. Here is a short summary: Currently I'm setting up Apache with https, and server-certificates. This is fairly easy and works straight out of the box - as expected. This is the configuration for this setup: Listen 443 SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.pem" SSLCertificateKeyFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.key" SSLCACertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_root.pem" SSLCADNRequestFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_intermediate.pem" SSLVerifyClient none SSLVerifyDepth 3 SSLOptions +StdEnvVars +ExportCertData RequestHeader set ssl-ClientCert-Subject-CN "%{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}s" RewriteEngine On ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests On SSLProxyEngine On ... <LocationMatch /secureStuff/$> SSLVerifyClient require Order deny,allow Allow from All </LocationMatch> ... <Proxy balancer://exBalancer> Header add Set-Cookie "EX_ROUTE=EB.%{BALANCER_WORKER_ROUTE}e; path=/" env=BALANCER_ROUTE_CHANGED BalancerMember http://10.0.0.1:7200 route=ee1 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on BalancerMember http://10.0.0.2:7200 route=ee2 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on status=+H ProxySet stickysession=EX_ROUTE scolonpathdelim=Off timeout=10 nofailover=off failonstatus=505 maxattempts=1 lbmethod=bybusyness Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.html [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://exBalancer/$1 [P,NC] ProxyPassReverse / balancer://exBalancer/ Header edit Set-Cookie "(.*)" "$1;HttpsOnly" ... So - everything works fine and as expected for all of the pages that are not a part of the LocationMatch-directive. When requesting something that matches the LocationMatch-directive, I'm asked for a certificate (hence the SSLVerifyClient required attribute) - and getting all the correct certificates in my browser that is based on the root/intermediate chain. After choosing a certificate and clicking "OK", this is what pops up in the apache logs: [ssl:info] [pid 9530:tid 25] [client :43357] AH01998: Connection closed to child 86 with abortive shutdown ( [Thu Oct 11 09:27:36.221876 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 9530:tid 25] ssl_engine_io.c(1171): (70014)End of file found: [client 10.235.128.55:45846] AH02007: SSL handshake interrupted by system [Hint: Stop button pressed in browser?!] And this just spams the logs. What is happening here? I can see this configuration working on my local machine, but not on one of our servers. There is no configration differences between the servers, only minor application-wise-changes. I've tried the following: 1) Removing CA-certificate-checking (works) 2) Adding required CA-certificate for the whole site (works) 3) Adding "SSLVerifyClient optional" does not work 4) ++ Server/Application Information Local: -OpenSSL v.1.0.1x -Apache 2.4.3 -Ubuntu -mpm: event -every configuration should be turned on (failing) server: -OpenSSL 0.9.8e -Apache 2.4.2 -SunOS -mpm: worker -every configuration should be turned on Please let me know if more information is needed, I'll provide it instantly. Brief sum-up: -Running apache 2.4 -Server certificates works just fine -Client certificates for some /Locations does not work, fails with errors PS: Could it be related with the OpenSSL version and the "Renegotiation" stuff related to TLS/SSLv3?

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  • Apache VirtualHost Blockhole (Eats All Requests on All Ports on an IP)

    - by Synetech inc.
    I’m exhausted. I just spent the last two hours chasing a goose that I have been after on-and-off for the past year. Here is the goal, put as succinctly as possible. Step 1: HOSTS File: 127.0.0.5 NastyAdServer.com 127.0.0.5 xssServer.com 127.0.0.5 SQLInjector.com 127.0.0.5 PornAds.com 127.0.0.5 OtherBadSites.com … Step 2: Apache httpd.conf <VirtualHost 127.0.0.5:80> ServerName adkiller DocumentRoot adkiller RewriteEngine On RewriteRule (\.(gif|jpg|png|jpeg)$) /p.png [L] RewriteRule (.*) /ad.htm [L] </VirtualHost> So basically what happens is that the HOSTS file redirects designated domains to the localhost, but to a specific loopback IP address. Apache listens for any requests on this address and serves either a transparent pixel graphic, or else an empty HTML file. Thus, any page or graphic on any of the bad sites is replaced with nothing (in other words an ad/malware/porn/etc. blocker). This works great as is (and has been for me for years now). The problem is that these bad things are no longer limited to just HTTP traffic. For example: <script src="http://NastyAdServer.com:99"> or <iframe src="https://PornAds.com/ad.html"> or a Trojan using ftp://spammaster.com/[email protected];[email protected];[email protected] or an app “phoning home” with private info in a crafted ICMP packet by pinging CardStealer.ru:99 Handling HTTPS is a relatively minor bump. I can create a separate VirtualHost just like the one above, replacing port 80 with 443, and adding in SSL directives. This leaves the other ports to be dealt with. I tried using * for the port, but then I get overlap errors. I tried redirecting all request to the HTTPS server and visa-versa but neither worked; either the SSL requests wouldn’t redirect correctly or else the HTTP requests gave the You’re speaking plain HTTP to an SSL-enabled server port… error. Further, I cannot figure out a way to test if other ports are being successfully redirected (I could try using a browser, but what about FTP, ICMP, etc.?) I realize that I could just use a port-blocker (eg ProtoWall, PeerBlock, etc.), but there’s two issues with that. First, I am blocking domains with this method, not IP addresses, so to use a port-blocker, I would have to get each and every domain’s IP, and update theme frequently. Second, using this method, I can have Apache keep logs of all the ad/malware/spam/etc. requests for future analysis (my current AdKiller logs are already 466MB right now). I appreciate any help in successfully setting up an Apache VirtualHost blackhole. Thanks.

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  • Troubleshooting Network Speeds -- The Age Old Inquiry

    - by John K
    I'm looking for help with what I'm sure is an age old question. I've found myself in a situation of yearning to understand network throughput more clearly, but I can't seem to find information that makes it "click" We have a few servers distributed geographically, running various versions of Windows. Assuming we always use one host (a desktop) as the source, when copying data from that host to other servers across the country, we see a high variance in speed. In some cases, we can copy data at 12MB/s consistently, in others, we're seeing 0.8 MB/s. It should be noted, after testing 8 destinations, we always seem to be at either 0.6-0.8MB/s or 11-12 MB/s. In the building we're primarily concerned with, we have an OC-3 connection to our ISP. I know there are a lot of variables at play, but I guess I was hoping the experts here could help answer a few basic questions to help bolster my understanding. 1.) For older machines, running Windows XP, server 2003, etc, with a 100Mbps Ethernet card and 72 ms typical latency, does 0.8 MB/s sound at all reasonable? Or do you think that slow enough to indicate a problem? 2.) The classic "mathematical fastest speed" of "throughput = TCP window / latency," is, in our case, calculated to 0.8 MB/s (64Kb / 72 ms). My understanding is that is an upper bounds; that you would never expect to reach (due to overhead) let alone surpass that speed. In some cases though, we're seeing speeds of 12.3 MB/s. There are Steelhead accelerators scattered around the network, could those account for such a higher transfer rate? 3.) It's been suggested that the use SMB vs. SMB2 could explain the differences in speed. Indeed, as expected, packet captures show both being used depending on the OS versions in play, as we would expect. I understand what determines SMB2 being used or not, but I'm curious to know what kind of performance gain you can expect with SMB2. My problem simply seems to be a lack of experience, and more importantly, perspective, in terms of what are and are not reasonable network speeds. Could anyone help impart come context/perspective?

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  • How to reliably map vSphere disks <-> Linux devices

    - by brianmcgee
    Task at hand After a virtual disk has been added to a Linux VM on vSphere 5, we need to identify the disks in order to automate the LVM storage provision. The virtual disks may reside on different datastores (e.g. sas or flash) and although they may be of the same size, their speed may vary. So I need a method to map the vSphere disks to Linux devices. Ideas Through the vSphere API, I am able to get the device info: Data Object Type: VirtualDiskFlatVer2BackingInfo Parent Managed Object ID: vm-230 Property Path: config.hardware.device[2000].backing Properties Name Type Value ChangeId string Unset contentId string "d58ec8c12486ea55c6f6d913642e1801" datastore ManagedObjectReference:Datastore datastore-216 (W5-CFAS012-Hybrid-CL20-004) deltaDiskFormat string "redoLogFormat" deltaGrainSize int Unset digestEnabled boolean false diskMode string "persistent" dynamicProperty DynamicProperty[] Unset dynamicType string Unset eagerlyScrub boolean Unset fileName string "[W5-CFAS012-Hybrid-CL20-004] l****9-000001.vmdk" parent VirtualDiskFlatVer2BackingInfo parent split boolean false thinProvisioned boolean false uuid string "6000C295-ab45-704e-9497-b25d2ba8dc00" writeThrough boolean false And on Linux I may read the uuid strings: [root@lx***** ~]# lsscsi -t [1:0:0:0] cd/dvd ata: /dev/sr0 [2:0:0:0] disk sas:0x5000c295ab45704e /dev/sda [3:0:0:0] disk sas:0x5000c2932dfa693f /dev/sdb [3:0:1:0] disk sas:0x5000c29dcd64314a /dev/sdc As you can see, the uuid string of disk /dev/sda looks somehow familiar to the string that is visible in the VMware API. Only the first hex digit is different (5 vs. 6) and it is only present to the third hyphen. So this looks promising... Alternative idea Select disks by controller. But is it reliable that the ascending SCSI Id also matches the next vSphere virtual disk? What happens if I add another DVD-ROM drive / USB Thumb drive? This will probably introduce new SCSI devices in between. Thats the cause why I think I will discard this idea. Questions Does someone know an easier method to map vSphere disks and Linux devices? Can someone explain the differences in the uuid strings? (I think this has something to do with SAS adressing initiator and target... WWN like...) May I reliably map devices by using those uuid strings? How about SCSI virtual disks? There is no uuid visible then... This task seems to be so obvious. Why doesn't Vmware think about this and simply add a way to query the disk mapping via Vmware Tools?

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  • My USB bootable thumb drive, no longer boots on a single particular computer on which it previously worked

    - by LiamMeron
    I created a bootable drive, booting CrunchBang, about 2 months ago. About a month ago, I booted into it on another laptop. After shutting down, I have been unable to get it to boot on my own laptop, despite having worked previously. I can still boot into it on my desktop, and can also boot into it on all other computers that I have tried. If I plug it in when I am running Ubuntu, the Home and / folders mount, the only error being that for some reason my PC likes to try and mount the swap partition too, which naturally, gives an error. The BIOS settings are all still setup to boot from USB. When I boot, all I get is a black screen with the white cursor, it will stay there for as long as I leave it. If it is worth anything, I have GRUB loader installed on the drive. The partitions look a little odd, but I am rather unfamiliar with how they are dealt with. The first partition, /, is sdb1 and has the bootable flag. The second partition is an extended system, and is sdb2. The third partition, according to GParted, seems to be nested under the second. This is the swap partition, and it is sdb5 The fourth partition is my home partition and is sdb6 and is also nested under the extended system. The first and fourth partitions are ext4. I don't know if that helps, but the more info, the better accuracy, generally. Thanks. EDIT: I tried reinstalling GRUB on the drive, but that didn't work. However, when I reinstalled GRUB on my laptop, I did it with my USB thumbdrive in. This caused the GRUB updater to find the /boot folder and add the proper details into my laptop's GRUB loader. I could log into CrunchBang from my laptop's GRUB but I was still unable to boot directly to the drive. It looked like my BIOS is unable to find the bootloader. I am unable to install GRUB to a partition I just created, a /boot partition at the start of the drive, GRUB just doesn't allow it. I think I'm going to have to reinstall #! on my drive, which won't be a great loss as I haven't put much time into it.

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  • How to run a restricted set of programs with Administrator privileges without giving up Admin acces (Win7 Pro)

    - by frLich
    I have a shared system, running Windows7 X64, restricted to a 'standard user' with no password. Not everyone who has access to the system has the administrator password. This works rather well, except for some applications - specially the unlock-applications for encrypted hard drives/USB flash drives. The specific ones either require Administrator access (eg. Seagate Blackarmor) or simply fail without it -- since these programs are sending raw commands to a device, this is to be expected. I would like to be able to add the hashes of these particular programs to a whitelist, and have them run as administrator without needing any prompts. Since these are by definition on removable media, I can't simply use a filename or even a path. One of the users who shares the system can be considered 'crafty', so anything which temporarily grants administrator rights to an user account is certain to cause problems. What i'd like to be able to do: 1) Create an admin account that can only run programs from a whitelist (or, failing that, from a directory) I can't find a good way to do this: As far as I can tell, SRP applies equally to ALL users? Even if I put a "Deny" token on all directories on the system, such that new directories would inherit it, it could still potentially run things from the mounted USB devices. I also don't know whether it's possible to create a new directory that DOESN'T inherit from the parent, that would lake the deny token, and provide admin access. 2) Find a lightweight service that will run these programs in its local context Windows7 seems to block cross-privilege level communication by default, and I haven't found such for windows 7. One example seems to be "sudo" (http://pages.cpsc.ucalgary.ca/~nfriess/sudo/) but because it uses a WLNOTIFY hook, it won't work under Vista nor Windows7 Non-Solutions: - RunAs: Requires administrator password! (but everyone calls it "sudo" anyway) - RunAs /savecred: Nice idea, but appears to be completely insecure. - RUNASSPC - Same concept as RunAs, uses "encrypted" files with credentials, but checks in user-space. - Scheduled Tasks - "Fixed" permissions make this difficult, and doesn't support interactive processes even if it did. - SuRun: From Google: "Surun uses its own Windows service that adds the user to the group of administrators during program start and removes him automatically from that group again"

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  • Convert apache rewrite rules to nginx

    - by Shiyu Sekam
    I want to migrate an Apache setup to Nginx, but I can't get the rewrite rules working in Nginx. I had a look on the official nginx documentation, but still some trouble converting it. http://nginx.org/en/docs/http/converting_rewrite_rules.html I've used http://winginx.com/en/htaccess to convert my rules, but this just works partly. The / part looks okay, the /library part as well, but the /public part doesn't work at all. Apache part: ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot /srv/www/Web Order allow,deny Allow from all RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] Order Deny,Allow Deny from all RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^pid=([0-9]*)$ RewriteRule ^places(.*)$ index.php?url=places/view/%1 [PT,L] # Extract search query in /search?q={query}&l={location} RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^q=(.*)&l=(.*)$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=search/index/%1/%2 [PT,L] # Extract search query in /search?q={query} RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^q=(.*)$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=search/index/%1 [PT,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Rewrite all other URLs to index.php/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] Order deny,allow deny from all ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn AddHandler php5-fcgi .php Action php5-fcgi /php5-fcgi Alias /php5-fcgi /usr/lib/cgi-bin/php5-fcgi FastCgiExternalServer /usr/lib/cgi-bin/php5-fcgi -socket /var/run/php5-fpm.sock -pass-header Authorization CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined Nginx config: server { #listen 80; ## listen for ipv4; this line is default and implied root /srv/www/Web; index index.html index.php; server_name localhost; location / { rewrite ^/$ /public/ break; rewrite ^(.*)$ /public/$1 break; } location /library { deny all; } location /public { if ($query_string ~ "^pid=([0-9]*)$"){ rewrite ^/places(.*)$ /index.php?url=places/view/%1 break; } if ($query_string ~ "^q=(.*)&l=(.*)$"){ rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php?url=search/index/%1/%2 break; } if ($query_string ~ "^q=(.*)$"){ rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php?url=search/index/%1 break; } if (!-e $request_filename){ rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php?url=$1 break; } } location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php5-fpm.sock; fastcgi_index index.php; include fastcgi_params; } } I haven't written the original ruleset, so I've a hard time converting it. Would you mind giving me a hint how to do it easily or can you help me to convert it, please? I really want to switch over to php5-fpm and nginx :) Thanks

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  • Synergy 1.5 crash (OSX 10.6.8)

    - by Oliver
    THANKS FOR TAKING THE TIME TO READ THIS I recently installed Synergy 1.5 r2278 (for Mac OSX 10.6.8) and was using it fine for most of the day, then it decided to stop working (the only thing I changed systemwise was the screensaver - and then after it started crashing disabled it - to see if it would resolve). When I start Synergy (on the Mac - Client) it says: after about 5 seconds (and successfully connecting to the Server) "synergyc quit unexpectedly" Here is the crash log (w/ binery info removed - too long for post requirements) Process: synergyc [1026] Path: /Applications/Synergy.app/Contents/MacOS/synergyc Identifier: synergy Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86 (Native) Parent Process: Synergy [1023] Date/Time: 2014-05-28 15:36:17.746 +0930 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.8 (10K549) Report Version: 6 Interval Since Last Report: 2144189 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 23 Per-App Interval Since Last Report: 10242 sec Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 9 Anonymous UUID: 86D5A57C-13D4-470E-AC72-48ACDDDE5EB0 Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGABRT) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000000, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 5 Application Specific Information: abort() called Thread 0: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95cf3afa mach_msg_trap + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95cf4267 mach_msg + 68 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95af02df __CFRunLoopRun + 2079 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95aef3c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 452 4 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95aef1f1 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 97 5 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x93654e04 RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 392 6 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x93654bb9 ReceiveNextEventCommon + 354 7 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x937dd137 ReceiveNextEvent + 83 8 synergyc 0x000356d0 COSXEventQueueBuffer::waitForEvent(double) + 48 9 synergyc 0x00010dd5 CEventQueue::getEvent(CEvent&, double) + 325 10 synergyc 0x00011fb0 CEventQueue::loop() + 272 11 synergyc 0x00044eb6 CClientApp::mainLoop() + 134 12 synergyc 0x0005c509 standardStartupStatic(int, char**) + 41 13 synergyc 0x000448a9 CClientApp::runInner(int, char**, ILogOutputter*, int (*)(int, char**)) + 137 14 synergyc 0x0005c4b0 CAppUtilUnix::run(int, char**) + 64 15 synergyc 0x000427df CApp::run(int, char**) + 63 16 synergyc 0x00006e65 main + 117 17 synergyc 0x00006dd9 start + 53 Thread 1: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d607da __sigwait + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d607b6 sigwait$UNIX2003 + 71 2 synergyc 0x00009583 CArchMultithreadPosix::threadSignalHandler(void*) + 67 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d21259 _pthread_start + 345 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d210de thread_start + 34 Thread 2: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d21aa2 __semwait_signal + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d2175e _pthread_cond_wait + 1191 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d212b1 pthread_cond_timedwait$UNIX2003 + 72 3 synergyc 0x00009476 CArchMultithreadPosix::waitCondVar(CArchCondImpl*, CArchMutexImpl*, double) + 150 4 synergyc 0x0002b18f CCondVarBase::wait(double) const + 63 5 synergyc 0x0002ce68 CSocketMultiplexer::serviceThread(void*) + 136 6 synergyc 0x0002d698 TMethodJob<CSocketMultiplexer>::run() + 40 7 synergyc 0x0002b8f4 CThread::threadFunc(void*) + 132 8 synergyc 0x00008f30 CArchMultithreadPosix::doThreadFunc(CArchThreadImpl*) + 80 9 synergyc 0x0000902a CArchMultithreadPosix::threadFunc(void*) + 74 10 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d21259 _pthread_start + 345 11 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d210de thread_start + 34 Thread 3: Dispatch queue: com.apple.libdispatch-manager 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d1a382 kevent + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d1aa9c _dispatch_mgr_invoke + 215 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d19f59 _dispatch_queue_invoke + 163 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d19cfe _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 240 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d19781 _pthread_wqthread + 390 5 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d195c6 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 4: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d19412 __workq_kernreturn + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d199a8 _pthread_wqthread + 941 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d195c6 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 5 Crashed: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d610ee __semwait_signal_nocancel + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d60fd2 nanosleep$NOCANCEL$UNIX2003 + 166 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95ddbfb2 usleep$NOCANCEL$UNIX2003 + 61 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95dfd6f0 abort + 105 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d79b1b _Unwind_Resume + 59 5 synergyc 0x00008fd1 CArchMultithreadPosix::doThreadFunc(CArchThreadImpl*) + 241 6 synergyc 0x0000902a CArchMultithreadPosix::threadFunc(void*) + 74 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d21259 _pthread_start + 345 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x95d210de thread_start + 34 Thread 5 crashed with X86 Thread State (32-bit): eax: 0x0000003c ebx: 0x95d60f39 ecx: 0xb0288a7c edx: 0x95d610ee edi: 0x00521950 esi: 0xb0288ad8 ebp: 0xb0288ab8 esp: 0xb0288a7c ss: 0x0000001f efl: 0x00000247 eip: 0x95d610ee cs: 0x00000007 ds: 0x0000001f es: 0x0000001f fs: 0x0000001f gs: 0x00000037 cr2: 0x002fe000 Model: MacBook2,1, BootROM MB21.00A5.B07, 2 processors, Intel Core 2 Duo, 2.16 GHz, 2 GB

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  • Cannot get to configure Kerberos for Reporting Services

    - by Ucodia
    Context I am trying to configure Kerberos in the domain for double-hop authentication. So here are the machines and their respective roles: client01: Windows 7 as client dc01: Windows Server 2008 R2 as domain controller and dns server01: Windows Server 2008 R2 as reporting server (native mode) server02: Windows Server 2008 R2 as SQL Server database engine I want my client01 to connect to server01 and configure a data source that is located on server02 using Intergrated Security. So as NTLM cannot push credentials that far, I need to setup Kerberos to enable double-hop authentication. The reporting service is runned by the Network Service service account and is configured only with the RSWindowsNegotiate options for authentication. Issue I cannot get to pass my client01 credential to server02 when configuring the data source on server01. Therefore I get the error: Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. So I went on dc01 and delegated full trust for any service to server01 but it not fixed the problem. I want to notice that I did not configured any SPNs for server01 because Reporting Service is runned by Network Service and from what I read on the Internet, when Reporting Services is going up with Network Service, SPNs are automatically registered. My problem is that even if that I want to configure SPNs manually, I do not know where I have to set them up. On dc01 or on server01? So I went a bit further on the issue and tried to trace this problem. From my understanding of Kerberos, this is what should happen on the network when I try to connect the data source: client01 ---- AS_REQ ---> dc01 <--- AS_REP ---- client01 ---- TGS_REQ ---> dc01 <--- TGS_REP ---- client01 ---- AP_REQ ---> server01 <--- AP_REP ---- server01 ---- TGS_REQ ---> dc01 <--- TGS_REP ---- server01 ---- AP_REQ ---> server02 <--- AP_REP ---- So captured my local network with Wireshark, but whenever I try to configure my data source from client01 on server01 to pass my credentials to server02, my client never sends a AS_REQ or TGS_REQ to the KDC on dc01. Questions So does anyone can tell me if I should configure the SPNs and on which machine does it have to be configured? Also why client01 never request for a TGT or a TGS to my KDC. Do you think there is something going wrong with the DC role of dc01?

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  • Need a script/batch/program that runs a command that won't be killed when the parent is killed

    - by billc.cn
    The scenario I use Zabbix to monitor my servers and recently I wanted to add some more metrics for the Windows ones. For security reasons, I used Zabbix's User Parameter feature, but it limits the execution of external commands to about 3 seconds. After that, the command is forcibly killed. I want to run some long run commands, so I used the trick from Zabbix's forum: run the command in the background, write the results to a file and use Zabbix to collect them. This is rather easy under *nix thanks to the "&" operator, but there is no such support in Windows' shell. To make things worse, when Zabbix kills forcibly kill the cmd.exe it used to evaluate the commands, all child processes die including the unfinished background tasks. Thus I need something that can sever all the ties with its children so they won't be affected in the cascading kill. What I've tried start and start /B - They do nothing as the child always die with the parent WScript.Shell.Run as in invis.vbs from StackOverflow - Sometimes work. If the wscript process is forcibly killed as opposed to quitting on its own, the children will die as well. hstart - similar results to invis.vbs At command - This requires you to set an absolution time for the task to run as opposed to an offset, so the code would be quite messy due to the limited shell scripting capability of Windows. (Edit) PsExec.exe from the SysInternals suite - It uses a service to launch the command, so it is not affected by the kill; however, it prints some banner and log info to StdErr and there's no switch to disable this. When I use 2>NUL to redirect them, Zabbix reports an error. After trying the above in different combinations, I noticed if I call hstart from invis.vbs, the command started by the former will be left alone as a parent-less process when invis.vbs is killed. However, since I need to redirect the output, the command I want to run is always in the form of cmd.exe /c ""command" "args"" >log. The vbs also removes all the quotes, so I have to encode the command with self-defined escape sequences. The end result involves about five levels of escaping/quoting, which is almost impossible to maintain. Anyone know any better solutions? Some requirements Any bat/vbs/js/Win32 binary is acceptable Better not require multiple levels of escaping No .Net (including PowerShell) because it is not installed

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