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• Interpreting java.lang.NoSuchMethodError message

  - by Doog

  I get the following runtime error message (along with the first line of the stack trace, which points to line 94). I'm trying to figure out why it says no such method exists. java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.sun.tools.doclets.formats.html.SubWriterHolderWriter.printDocLinkForMenu( ILcom/sun/javadoc/ClassDoc;Lcom/sun/javadoc/MemberDoc; Ljava/lang/String;Z)Ljava/lang/String; at com.sun.tools.doclets.formats.html.AbstractExecutableMemberWriter.writeSummaryLink( AbstractExecutableMemberWriter.java:94) Line 94 of writeSummaryLink is shown below. QUESTIONS What does "ILcom" or "Z" mean? Why there are four types in parentheses (ILcom/sun/javadoc/ClassDoc;Lcom/sun/javadoc/MemberDoc;Ljava/lang/String;Z) and one after the parentheses Ljava/lang/String; when the method printDocLinkForMenu clearly has five parameters? CODE DETAIL The writeSummaryLink method is: protected void writeSummaryLink(int context, ClassDoc cd, ProgramElementDoc member) { ExecutableMemberDoc emd = (ExecutableMemberDoc)member; String name = emd.name(); writer.strong(); writer.printDocLinkForMenu(context, cd, (MemberDoc) emd, name, false); // 94 writer.strongEnd(); writer.displayLength = name.length(); writeParameters(emd, false); } Here's the method line 94 is calling: public void printDocLinkForMenu(int context, ClassDoc classDoc, MemberDoc doc, String label, boolean strong) { String docLink = getDocLink(context, classDoc, doc, label, strong); print(deleteParameterAnchors(docLink)); }

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• css caption issue

  - by Moode Osman

  i have problem with caption to make caption appear under each photo when hover over it but thr problem here they appear all on one side one place the left bottom side here the code for HTML <div id="content2"> <ul style="width: 5020px; height: 600px;"> <li class="image" style="width: 392px;"><img src="images/pr1x.jpg" ><p class="caption">1st caption</p></li> <li class="image" style="width: 392px;"><img src="images/pr2x.jpg" ><p class="caption">2st caption</p></li> </ul></div> here the code for CSS li.image p.caption { position:absolute; display: none; font-size: 28px; color: red; } li.image:hover p.caption { display: list-item; }? #content2{ width: 150%; height: 600px; float:left; overflow:hidden; } #content2 p{ width: 150%; } .scrollbar-hor{ background-color: #e5e2de; height: 24px; width: 150%; float:left; } .handle-hor{ height: 25px; width: 400px; background: url(http://brafitting.info/images/bar.jpg) no-repeat; } plz help ty

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• Which ORM to use?

  - by Paja

  I'm developing an application which will have these classes: class Shortcut { public string Name { get; } public IList<Trigger> Triggers { get; } public IList<Action> Actions { get; } } class Trigger { public string Name { get; } } class Action { public string Name { get; } } And I will have 20+ more classes, which will derive from Trigger or Action, so in the end, I will have one Shortcut class, 15 Action-derived classes and 5 Trigger-derived classes. My question is, which ORM will best suit this application? EF, NH, SubSonic, or maybe something else (Linq2SQL)? I will be periodically releasing new application versions, adding more triggers and actions (or changing current triggers/actions), so I will have to update database schema as well. I don't know if EF or NH provides any good methods to easily update the schema. Or if they do, is there any tutorial how to do that? I've already found this article about NH schema updating, quoting: Fortunately NHibernate provides us the possibility to update an existing schema, that is NHibernate creates an update script which can the be applied to the database. I've never found how to actually generate the update script, so I can't tell NH to update the schema. Maybe I've misread something, I just didn't found it. Last note: If you suggest EF, will be EF 1.0 suitable as well? I would rather use some older .NET than 4.0.

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• CSS div rounded corners

  - by Ulkmun

  I'm attempting to do the following... Here's what I've got right now.. but it's not rendering correctly. Does anyone have any idea as to how I'd fix this? CSS /* Curved Corners */ .bl { background: url(bl.gif) 0 100% no-repeat; /*background-color:#EFFBEF;*/ width: 700px; margin-left: auto ; margin-right: auto ;} .br { background: url(br.gif) 100% 100% no-repeat; } .tl { background: url(tl.gif) 0 0 no-repeat; } .tr { background: url(tr.gif) 100% 0 no-repeat; } .clear {font-size: 1px; height: 1px} HTML <div class="bl"><div class="br"><div class="tl"><div class="tr"> <div id="header"> </div> <div id="footer"> </div> </div></div></div></div>

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• Java - Thread problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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• Java Concurrency in practice sample question

  - by andy boot

  I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. According to the book this piece of code is at risk of of failure if it has not been published properly. Because I like to code examples and break them to prove how they work. I have tried to make it throw an AssertionError but have failed. (Leading me to my previous question) Can anyone post sample code so that an AssertionError is thrown? Rule: Do not modify the Holder class. public class Holder{ private int n; public Holder(int n){ this.n = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } I have modified the class to make it more fragile but I still can not get an AssertionError thrown. class Holder2{ private int n; private int n2; public Holder2(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(200); this.n2 = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n2) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } Is it possible to make either of the above classes throw an AssertionError? Or do we have to accept that they may occasionally do so and we can't write code to prove it?

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• java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

  - by user173446

  Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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• is back_insert_iterator<> safe to be passed by value?

  - by afriza

  I have a code that looks something like: struct Data { int value; }; class A { public: typedef std::deque<boost::shared_ptr<Data> > TList; std::back_insert_iterator<TList> GetInserter() { return std::back_inserter(m_List); } private: TList m_List; }; class AA { boost::scoped_ptr<A> m_a; public: AA() : m_a(new A()) {} std::back_insert_iterator<A::TList> GetDataInserter() { return m_a->GetInserter(); } }; class B { template<class OutIt> CopyInterestingDataTo(OutIt outIt) { // loop and check conditions for interesting data // for every `it` in a Container<Data*> // create a copy and store it for( ... it = ..; .. ; ..) if (...) { *outIt = OutIt::container_type::value_type(new Data(**it)); outIt++; // dummy } } void func() { AA aa; CopyInterestingDataTo(aa.GetInserter()); // aa.m_a->m_List is empty! } }; The problem is that A::m_List is always empty even after CopyInterestingDataTo() is called. However, if I debug and step into CopyInterestingDataTo(), the iterator does store the supposedly inserted data!

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• Bootstarap: want to trigger some costum events on layout change

  - by DS_web_developer

  So, there are some events in my app that changes layout on my page (re-position of the elements)... mostly is done by bootstrap collapsing and fading (tabs, collapsibles, accordions)... I would like to fire an event whenever a change is about to happen and another when the change is done.. right now I came out with something like that $('.collapse').on("shown hidden", function(){ jQuery(myAPP).trigger("layoutchanged"); }); $('.collapse').on("show hide", function(){ jQuery(myAPP).trigger("layoutchanging"); }); and then... jQuery(myAPP).on("layoutchanging", function(e){ log("Start changing"); }); jQuery(myAPP).on("layoutchanged", function(e){ log("Layout changed"); }); it works for collapse and accordions OK. but on tabs, where the markup is like this: <ul class="nav nav-tabs can_deactivate"> <li><a href="#tab_1" data-toggle="tab">Open Tab 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tab_2" data-toggle="tab">Open Tab 2</a></li> </ul> <div class="tab-content"> <div class="tab-pane fade" id="tab_1"> Lorem ipsum </div> <div class="tab-pane fade" id="tab_2"> Lorem ipsum </div> </div> Works only on show, but not on hide... what can I do? JS FIDDLE: http://jsfiddle.net/KL7Af/

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• ContentNegotiatingViewResolver Issue

  - by Jay

  How to map a url of this kind "/myapp/sample" to map to the default MarshallingView instead of a JSTLView. @RequestMapping("/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } The above code works fine. When i tried to use http://.../vets.xml, I was able to download the xml. But, @RequestMapping("/myapp/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } doesn't resolve to the XML MarshalView, instead it resolves to JSTLView. Any thoughts? below is the spring v 3 configuration from the petclinic example, that i'm using. <bean id="vets" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <bean id="test" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <oxm:jaxb2-marshaller id="marshaller"> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Vets"/> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Test1"/> </oxm:jaxb2-marshaller>

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• OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

  - by Karel J

  Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

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• What is wrong with locking non-static fields? What is the correct way to lock a particular instance?

  - by smartcaveman

  Why is it considered bad practice to lock non-static fields? And, if I am not locking non-static fields, then how do I lock an instance method without locking the method on all other instances of the same or derived class? I wrote an example to make my question more clear. public abstract class BaseClass { private readonly object NonStaticLockObject = new object(); private static readonly object StaticLockObject = new object(); protected void DoThreadSafeAction<T>(Action<T> action) where T: BaseClass { var derived = this as T; if(derived == null) { throw new Exception(); } lock(NonStaticLockObject) { action(derived); } } } public class DerivedClass :BaseClass { private readonly Queue<object> _queue; public void Enqueue(object obj) { DoThreadSafeAction<DerivedClass>(x=>x._queue.Enqueue(obj)); } } If I make the lock on the StaticLockObject, then the DoThreadSafeAction method will be locked for all instances of all classes that derive from BaseClass and that is not what I want. I want to make sure that no other threads can call a method on a particular instance of an object while it is locked.

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• Is it possible to create a python iterator over pre-defined mutable data?

  - by Wilduck

  I might be doing this wrong, if I am, let me know, but I'm curious if the following is possible: I have a class that holds a number of dictionaries, each of which pairs names to a different set of objects of a given class. For example: items = {"ball" : ItemInstance1, "sword" : ItemInstance2} people = {"Jerry" : PersonInstance1, "Bob" : PersonInstance2, "Jill" : PersonInstance3} My class would then hold the current items and people that are availible, and these would be subject to change as the state changes: Class State: def __init__(self, items, people): self.items = items self.people = people I would like to define a iter() and next() method such that it iterates through all of the values in its attributes. My first question is whether or not this is possible. If it is, will it be able to support a situation as follows: I define items and people as above then: state = State(items, people) for names, thing in state: print name + " is " + thing.color items[cheese] = ItemInstance3 for names, thing in state: print name + " weighs " + thing.weight While I feel like this would be usefull in the code I have, I don't know if it's either possible or the right approach. Everything I've read about user defined iterators has suggested that each instance of them is one use only.

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• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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• Finding out max available print area

  - by Armagan

  I'm trying to find out max available area on my printer. I've printed a simple rectangle trying out different boundary variables. My question is, why doesn't first two work correctly? They don't print a full rectangle on the paper, only the left and top sides are drawn. Why does only the third one prints a full rectangle? I was under the impression of that all three should be working correctly. What am I missing? Here's my code: this.printDocument1.DefaultPageSettings.Margins = new Margins(0, 0, 0, 0); ... private void PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { //Method 1, no right and bottom sides are printed e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(new Pen(Color.Black, 1), e.PageBounds); //Method 2, same as Method 1 e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(new Pen(Color.Black, 1), e.MarginBounds); //Method 3, works correctly e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(new Pen(Color.Black, 1), new Rectangle((int)e.Graphics.VisibleClipBounds.X, (int)e.Graphics.VisibleClipBounds.Y, (int)e.Graphics.VisibleClipBounds.Width, (int)e.Graphics.VisibleClipBounds.Height)); }

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• What is the difference between Unidirectional and Bidirectional associations?

  - by hguser

  Hi: What is the difference between Unidirectional and Bidirectional associations? Since the table generated in the db are all the same,so the only difference I found is that each side of the bidiretional assocations will have a refer to the other,and the unidirectional not. /////////// This is a Unidirectional association public class User { private int id; private String name; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn( name = "groupId") private Group group; } public class Group { private int id; private String name; } ////////////// The Bidirectional association public class User { private int id; private String name; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn( name = "groupId") private Group group; } public class Group { private int id; private String name; @OneToMany(mappedBy="group") private List<User> users; } The difference is wheather the group hold a refer of the user. So I wonder if this is the only difference? which is recommended?

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• How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

  - by Ned Batchelder

  Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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• EF Code First - Relationships

  - by CaffGeek

  I have these classes public class EntityBase : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Created { get; set; } public string CreatedBy { get; set; } public DateTime Updated { get; set; } public string UpdatedBy { get; set; } } public class EftInterface : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } public Provider Provider { get; set; } public List<BusinessUnit> BusinessUnits { get; set; } } public class Provider : EntityBase, IEntity { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal DefaultDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal DefaultCreditLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryCreditLimit { get; set; } } public class BusinessUnit : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } } An interface, is really a Provider, with a collection of Business Units. The issue is that while my db model ends up having a correct EftInterfaces table, with a FK to Provider_Id, the BusinessUnits table has a FK to EftInterface_Id. But, a BusinessUnit can be included in more than one EftInterface. I need a many to many relationship. A BusinessUnit can be part of many EftInterfaces, and an EftInterface can contain many BusinessUnits. How can I get CodeFirst to generate the many-to-many table?

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• jQuery Swapping Elements

  - by zuk1

  Ok let me make an example: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#options_2").hide(); $("#options_3").hide(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="options_1">option 1</div> <div id="options_2">option 2</div> <div id="options_3">option 3</div> <a href="" class="selected">choose option 1</a> <a href="">choose option 2</a> <a href="">choose option 3</a> </body> As you can see only option 1 is visible by default, and the link you click to show option 1 has the class="selected" by default, showing the user that that option is currently selected. I basically want it so that when they click "choose option 2" the options 1 div hides itself and the options 2 div shows itself, and then gives the second link the selected class and removes the class from the image link. It basically just tabs using links and divs but due to the format I have to display it in I cannot use any of the tabs plugins I have found online.

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• How do I update a NSTableView when its data source has changed?

  - by Jergason

  I am working along with Cocoa Programming For Mac OS X (a great book). One of the exercises the book gives is to build a simple to-do program. The UI has a table view, a text field to type in a new item and an "Add" button to add the new item to the table. On the back end I have a controller that is the data source and delegate for my NSTableView. The controller also implements an IBAction method called by the "Add" button. It contains a NSMutableArray to hold the to do list items. When the button is clicked, the action method fires correctly and the new string gets added to the mutable array. However, my data source methods are not being called correctly. Here they be: - (NSInteger)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView { NSLog(@"Calling numberOfRowsInTableView: %d", [todoList count]); return [todoList count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)aTableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { NSLog(@"Returning %@ to be displayed", [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]); return [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]; } Here is the rub. -numberOfRowsInTableView only gets called when the app first starts, not every time I add something new to the array. -objectValueForTableColumn never gets called at all. I assume this is because Cocoa is smart enough to not call this method when there is nothing to draw. Is there some method I need to call to let the table view know that its data source has changed, and it should redraw itself?

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• Jquery click event propagation

  - by ozsenegal

  I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

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• jquery plugin caroufredsel hide next/prev buttons until mouseover carousel

  - by John Magnolia

  I am trying to make the buttons hide by default and they only become visible when the mouse is over. Although I am having problems where the carousel core code seems to be adding display block even if I set display none in the CSS. var $slides = $("#slides"); $slides.find('ul.banners').eq(0).carouFredSel({ height: 360, items: { visible: 1 }, scroll: { easing: "easeInOutSine", duration: 1200 }, auto: { delay: 1000 }, prev: { button: $slides.find('.prev'), items: 1 }, next:{ button: $slides.find('.next'), items: 1 }, pagination: { container: $slides.find(".pagination"), keys: true, anchorBuilder: function(nr) { return '<li><a href="#"><span>'+nr+'</span></a></li>'; } } }); $slideButtons = $slides.find(".next,.prev"); $slides.find('ul.banners').hover(function(){ $slideButtons.fadeIn(); },function(){ $slideButtons.fadeOut(); }); HTML <div id="slides"> <ul class="banners"> <li><img /></li> <li><img /></li> </ul> <ul class="pagination"></ul> <div class="next">Next</div> <div class="prev">Previous</div> </div>

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• Strongly Typed DataSet column requires custom type to implement IXmlSerializable?

  - by Phil

  I have a strongly typed Dataset with a single table with three columns. These columns all contain custom types. DataColumn1 is of type Parent DataColumn2 is of type Child1 DataColumn3 is of type Child2 Here is what these classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlInclude(typeof(Child1)), XmlInclude(typeof(Child2))] public abstract class Parent { public int p1; } [Serializable] public class Child1 :Parent { public int c1; } [Serializable] public class Child2 : Parent { public int c1; } now, if I add a row with DataColumn1 being null, and DataColumns 2 and 3 populated and try to serialize it, it works: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(null, new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Works! } However, if I try to add a value to DataColumn1, it fails: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(new Child1(), new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Fails! } Here is the Exception: "Type 'WindowsFormsApplication4.Child1, WindowsFormsApplication4, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' does not implement IXmlSerializable interface therefore can not proceed with serialization." I have also tried using the XmlSerializer to serialize the dataset, but I get the same exception. Does anyone know of a way to get around this where I don't have to implement IXmlSerializable on all the Child classes? Alternatively, is there a way to implement IXmlSerializable keeping all default behavior the same (ie not having any class specific code in the ReadXml and WriteXml methods)

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• Form submit capture into database not working

  - by kielie

  Hi guys, I have a form that has two buttons on it, one yes, one no, and at the moment I capture the clicked button into a database, but for some reason, it doesn't always capture the clicked button, I have gone through all my code and everything seems fine, here is the form <div id="mid_prompt"> <form action="refer.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="yes" /></span> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="no" /></span> </div> </form> </div> I am using sessions to carry the variables all the way to the end of the forms where I then write all the data to a database, I have checked my sessions and they seem to be working fine, the only one that is giving problems is the yes/no. So basically I need it to capture that yes/no everytime. Thanx in advance!

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• How to do buffered intersection checks on an IPoint?

  - by Quigrim

  How would I buffer an IPoint to do an intersection check using IRelationalOperator? I have, for arguments sake: IPoint p1 = xxx; IPoint p2 = yyy; IRelationalOperator rel1 = (IRelationalOperator)p1; if (rel.Intersects (p2)) // Do something But now I want to add a tolerance to my check, so I assume the right way to do that is by either buffering p1 or p2. Right? How do I add such a buffer? Note: the Intersects method I am using is an extension method I wrote to simplify my code. Here it is: /// <summary> /// Returns true if the IGeometry is intersected. /// This method negates the Disjoint method. /// </summary> /// <param name="relOp">The rel op.</param> /// <param name="other">The other.</param> /// <returns></returns> public static bool Intersects ( this IRelationalOperator relOp, IGeometry other) { return (!relOp.Disjoint (other)); }

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