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  • Why AQTime slows execution even when profiling is not on, and can anything be done for it?

    - by Antti Suni
    Hi! In AQTime for Delphi, it boasts to be very fast to get to the trouble spots by using areas and triggers etc. But it seems to me, that especially if you have very much code in the areas to profile, then the execution slows down dramatically even when the profiling is NOT on. For example, if I want to profile a specific routine late in the program flow, but don't know what is called there, I'd think to put this routine only as a trigger and the initial status for threads as Off, and then choose "Full check by Routines/Lines". However, when I do this, the program execution slows down heavily already before the trigger routine has ever been hit. For example if the "preparation flow" takes around 5 minutes without AQTime, then when I run it with profiling disabled, it already has been running for 30 minutes and still goes even when I know the trigger has not yet even been reached. I know I can try to workaround this by reducing the amount of routines/lines profiled, but it is not really a good solution for me, since I'd like to profile all of them once I get to the actual trigger routine. Also another, often better workaround is to start the application without AQTime and then use Attach to Process after the "preparation flow" has finished, but this works well only when the execution pauses in GUI in the proper place or otherwise provides a suitable time frame for doing the attaching. In all cases this is not the case. Any comments on why this is so and is there anything else to do than just try to reduce the code from the areas or attach later to the process?

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  • Problem with response.redirect sending incorrect HTTPMethod

    - by Andy Macnaughton-Jones
    Hi, I've got a strange problem with a Response.Redirect. I'm using VB.NET with the .NET 2 framework (so VS2005 & SP1). I've got a page that I do a form submit on (that's a proper form method="POST" hard-coded onto the page) and that properly posts me back the page data which is then processed. As part of that processing the system determines if we need to get sent to another URL after processing has been complete. So the request.httpmethod = "POST". So if the "GotoPage" parameter has a URL specified we then do a response.redirect(URL, false). (False as we want page processing to complete in order to write some timing logs etc). The page correctly redirects but instead of the response having a "GET" as the request.httpmethod it has a "POST" instead ! Now, we're using our own custom framework so that we use the HTTPRequest method to determine if a page has been posted back or is being "Getted" so the "IsPagePostBack" property doesn't work (that only works when you're using the normal .NET controls and form submissions). In all other instances our code works happily but what might be causing the Request.httpMethod to not be being set correctly ? I've tried doing a response.clear before the redirect in case headers are being written out before hand but to no avail. Any clues ?! thanks, Andy

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  • Variable-width inline underline effects in CSS

    - by sidereal
    I need to simulate the look of a typical paper form in CSS. It consists of a two-column table of fields. Each field consists of a field name (of variable width) followed by an underline that continues to the end of the column. The field might be populated, in which case there is some text centered above the line, or it may be blank. If that isn't clear, he's a rough idea in manky ASCII art: Name: _______Foo_______ Age: _____17______ Location: __Melbourne__ Handedness: _Left_ (except that the underline would continue under any text) To implement the underline without text, I assume I should use a border-bottom rather than a text-decoration: underline. Additionally, I need the bordered element to take up the full available space. Both of those argue for a block-level element. However, I can't find any way to get the block level element (either a div, an li, or a span set to display: block or inline-block) to remain on the same line as the label. As soon as I give it a width: 100%, it newlines. I've tried various combinations of floats, and I'm not inclined to do anything ridiculous with absolute positioning. Any recommendations?

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  • Passing string with (accidental) escape character loses character even though it's a raw string

    - by Steen
    I have a function with a python doctest that fails because one of the test input strings has a backslash that's treated like an escape character even though I've encoded the string as a raw string. My doctest looks like this: >>> infile = [ "Todo: fix me", "/** todo: fix", "* me", "*/", r"""//\todo stuff to fix""", "TODO fix me too", "toDo bug 4663" ] >>> find_todos( infile ) ['fix me', 'fix', 'stuff to fix', 'fix me too', 'bug 4663'] And the function, which is intended to extract the todo texts from a single line following some variation over a todo specification, looks like this: todos = list() for line in infile: print line if todo_match_obj.search( line ): todos.append( todo_match_obj.search( line ).group( 'todo' ) ) And the regular expression called todo_match_obj is: r"""(?:/{0,2}\**\s?todo):?\s*(?P<todo>.+)""" A quick conversation with my ipython shell gives me: In [35]: print "//\todo" // odo In [36]: print r"""//\todo""" //\todo And, just in case the doctest implementation uses stdout (I haven't checked, sorry): In [37]: sys.stdout.write( r"""//\todo""" ) //\todo My regex-foo is not high by any standards, and I realize that I could be missing something here. EDIT: Following Alex Martellis answer, I would like suggestions on what regular expression would actually match the blasted r"""//\todo fix me""". I know that I did not originally ask for someone to do my homework, and I will accept Alex's answer as it really did answer my question (or confirm my fears). But I promise to upvote any good solutions to my problem here :) I'm using Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Dec 7 2009, 18:45:15) Thank you for reading this far (If you skipped directly down here, I understand)

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  • Advice on optimzing speed for a Stored Procedure that uses Views

    - by Belliez
    Based on a previous question and with a lot of help from Damir Sudarevic (thanks) I have the following sql code which works great but is very slow. Can anyone suggest how I can speed this up and optimise for speed. I am now using SQL Server Express 2008 (not 2005 as per my original question). What this code does is retrieves parameters and their associated values from several tables and rotates the table in a form that can be easily compared. Its great for one of two rows of data but now I am testing with 100 rows and to run GetJobParameters takes over 7 minutes to complete? Any advice is gratefully accepted, thank you in advanced. /*********************************************************************************************** ** CREATE A VIEW (VIRTUAL TABLE) TO ALLOW EASIER RETREIVAL OF PARMETERS ************************************************************************************************/ CREATE VIEW dbo.vParameters AS SELECT m.MachineID AS [Machine ID] ,j.JobID AS [Job ID] ,p.ParamID AS [Param ID] ,t.ParamTypeID AS [Param Type ID] ,m.Name AS [Machine Name] ,j.Name AS [Job Name] ,t.Name AS [Param Type Name] ,t.JobDataType AS [Job DataType] ,x.Value AS [Measurement Value] ,x.Unit AS [Unit] ,y.Value AS [JobDataType] FROM dbo.Machines AS m JOIN dbo.JobFiles AS j ON j.MachineID = m.MachineID JOIN dbo.JobParams AS p ON p.JobFileID = j.JobID JOIN dbo.JobParamType AS t ON t.ParamTypeID = p.ParamTypeID LEFT JOIN dbo.JobMeasurement AS x ON x.ParamID = p.ParamID LEFT JOIN dbo.JobTrait AS y ON y.ParamID = p.ParamID GO -- Step 2 CREATE VIEW dbo.vJobValues AS SELECT [Job Name] ,[Param Type Name] ,COALESCE(cast([Measurement Value] AS varchar(50)), [JobDataType]) AS [Val] FROM dbo.vParameters GO /*********************************************************************************************** ** GET JOB PARMETERS FROM THE VIEW JUST CREATED ************************************************************************************************/ CREATE PROCEDURE GetJobParameters AS -- Step 3 DECLARE @Params TABLE ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) ,ParamName varchar(50) ); INSERT INTO @Params (ParamName) SELECT DISTINCT [Name] FROM dbo.JobParamType -- Step 4 DECLARE @qw TABLE( id int IDENTITY (1,1) , txt nchar(300) ) INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT 'SELECT' UNION SELECT '[Job Name]' ; INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT ',MAX(CASE [Param Type Name] WHEN ''' + ParamName + ''' THEN Val ELSE NULL END) AS [' + ParamName + ']' FROM @Params ORDER BY id; INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT 'FROM dbo.vJobValues' UNION SELECT 'GROUP BY [Job Name]' UNION SELECT 'ORDER BY [Job Name]'; -- Step 5 --SELECT txt FROM @qw DECLARE @sql_output VARCHAR (MAX) SET @sql_output = '' -- NULL + '' = NULL, so we need to have a seed SELECT @sql_output = -- string to avoid losing the first line. COALESCE (@sql_output + txt + char (10), '') FROM @qw EXEC (@sql_output) GO

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  • Regex: markdown-style link matching

    - by The.Anti.9
    I want to parse markdown style links, but I'm having some trouble matching the reference style ones. Like this one: [id]: http://example.com/ "Optional Title Here" My regex gets the id and the url, but not the title. Heres what I have: /\[([a-zA-Z0-9_-]+)\]: (\S+)\s?("".*?"")?/ I go through and add the references to a hashtable. the id as the key and the value is an instance of a class I made called LinkReference that just contains the url and the title. In case the problem is not my regex, and my code adding the matches to the hash table, Heres my code for that too: Regex rx = new Regex(@"\[([a-zA-Z0-9_-]+)\]: (\S+)\s?("".*?"")?"); MatchCollection matches = rx.Matches(InputText); foreach (Match match in matches) { GroupCollection groups = match.Groups; string title = null; try { title = groups[3].Value; } catch (Exception) { // keep title null } LinkReferences.Add(groups[1].Value, new LinkReference(groups[2].Value, title)); }

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  • How to implement reject in parallel approval workflow?

    - by Dmitry Martynov
    I develop a SharePoint workflow with a Replicator activity to replicate a custom activity for every approver. The custom activity implements an approval branch for a particular user. It has classic form with CreateTask, While, OnTaskChanged and CompleteTask activities. I setup UntilCondition on the replicator to cancel execution after one approver chooses to reject the approval and then workflow finishes. The problem happens with other uncompleted tasks which "hang" in their current state. User does not see this state when open the task. I put UpdateAllTasks after the replacator to set the task status to Cancelled. But since there is no event activities between CompleteTask (for the rejected task) and UpdateAllTasks, the UpdateAllTask activity set Cancelled for the rejected task also. The question, what can I do to flush the pending change made by CompleteTask before UpdateAllTasks? Or perhaps, there is another way to implement such workflow. I was thinking about the way to implement Cancel handler for the custom activity with UpdateTask. But I do not know how to implement it and tell to the cancel handler that it executes in the case of the rejection.

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  • Extracting bool from istream in a templated function

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I'm converting my fields class read functions into one template function. I have field classes for int, unsigned int, long, and unsigned long. These all use the same method for extracting a value from an istringstream (only the types change): template <typename Value_Type> Value_Type Extract_Value(const std::string& input_string) { std::istringstream m_string_stream; m_string_stream.str(input_string); m_string_stream.clear(); m_string_stream >> value; return; } The tricky part is with the bool (Boolean) type. There are many textual representations for Boolean: 0, 1, T, F, TRUE, FALSE, and all the case insensitive combinations Here's the questions: What does the C++ standard say are valid data to extract a bool, using the stream extraction operator? Since Boolean can be represented by text, does this involve locales? Is this platform dependent? I would like to simplify my code by not writing my own handler for bool input. I am using MS Visual Studio 2008 (version 9), C++, and Windows XP and Vista.

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  • IoC and dataContext disposing in asp.net mvc 2 application

    - by zerkms
    I have the Global.asax like the code below: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { // .... } protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(typeof(IOCControllerFactory)); } } public class IOCControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private readonly IKernel kernel; public IOCControllerFactory() { kernel = new StandardKernel(new NanocrmContainer()); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var controller = kernel.TryGet(controllerType) as IController; if (controller == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var standartController = controller as Controller; if (standartController is IIoCController) ((IIoCController)standartController).SetIoc(kernel); return standartController; } class NanocrmContainer : Ninject.Modules.NinjectModule { public override void Load() { // ... Bind<DomainModel.Entities.db>().ToSelf().InRequestScope().WithConstructorArgument("connection", "Data Source=lims;Initial Catalog=nanocrm;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=***;Password=***"); } } } In this case if somewhere it is the class, defined like: public class UserRepository : IUserRepository { private db dataContext; private IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository; public UserRepository(db dataContext, IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository) { this.dataContext = dataContext; this.userGroupRepository = userGroupRepository; } } then the dataContext instance is created (if no one was created in this request scope) by Ninject. So the trouble now is - where to invoke dataContext method .Dispose()?

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  • Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed issue with hib

    - by Bijendra Singh
    I am getting Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed exception when integrating my method is called from the portlet. I am using spring transaction management for handling all the hibernate transaction in the spring configuration file through AOP. When I run my hibernate dao method for persisting the data through Junit its working fine. Exception description: I am facing an issue that is when I run my code through unit test case data is getting updated in database properly but when I run the same code with integration with portlet my code is executing finely but after the completion of transaction the records is not getting updated to database. The following error can be seen in the log which is [4/7/10 23:06:38:685 MDT] 0000006c LocalTranCoor E WLTC0014E: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionContainment is completing or completed. [4/7/10 23:06:38:689 MDT] 0000006c LocalTransact E J2CA0026E: Method addSync caught java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed. at com.ibm.ws.LocalTransaction.LocalTranCoordImpl.enlistSynchronization(LocalTranCoordImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.LocalTransactionWrapper.addSync(LocalTransactionWrapper.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.initializeForUOW(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.involveMCInTran(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.reactivate(WSJdbcConnection.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.getWarnings(WSJdbcConnection.java:1539)

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute temp result or create a temporary v

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • Access Violation When Writing Dynamic 2D Array... Sometimes

    - by Shraptnel
    This program is meant to generate a dynamic array, however it gives an access violation error when writing when given certain dimensions. Eg: R = 6, C = 5 crashes, but then R = 5, C = 6 doesn't. In case your wondering, it isn't my homework to "fix" this broken program, this is the method we were taught in class. Also part of my assessment is to use this method, so vectors are out. Thanks in advance! #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ const int R = 6; const int C = 5; char **d; d = new char *[R]; for(int i=0; i<C; ++i){ d[i] = new char[C]; } //initialise for(int i=0; i<R; ++i){ for(int j=0; j<C; ++j){ d[i][j] = 'd'; cout<<d[i][j]; } cout<<endl; } cout<<endl; system("pause"); return 0; }

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  • Rails deployment strategies with Bundler and JRuby

    - by brad
    I have a jruby rails app and I've just started using bundler for gem dependency management. I'm interested in hearing peoples' opinions on deployment strategies. The docs say that bundle package will package your gems locally so you don't have to fetch them on the server (and I believe warbler does this by default), but I personally think (for us) this is not the way to go as our deployed code (in our case a WAR file) becomes much larger. My preference would be to mimic our MVN setup which fetches all dependencies directly on the server AFTER the code has been copied there. Here's what I'm thinking, all comments are appreciated: Step1: Build war file, copy to server Step2: Unpack war on server, fetch java dependencies with mvn Step3: use Bundler to fetch Gem deps (Where should these be placed??) * Step 3 is the step I'm a bit unclear on. Do I run bundle install with a particular target in mind?? Step4: Restart Tomcat Again my reasoning here is that I'd like to keep the dependencies separate from the code at deploy time. I'd also like to place all gem dependencies in the app itself so they are contained, rather than installing them in the app user's home directory (as, again, I believe is the default for Bundler)

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  • Programming R/Sweave for proper \Sexpr output

    - by deoksu
    Hi I'm having a bit of a problem programming R for Sweave, and the #rstats twitter group often points here, so I thought I'd put this question to the SO crowd. I'm an analyst- not a programmer- so go easy on me my first post. Here's the problem: I am drafting a survey report in Sweave with R and would like to report the marginal returns in line using \Sexpr{}. For example, rather than saying: Only 14% of respondents said 'X'. I want to write the report like this: Only \Sexpr{p.mean(variable)}$\%$ of respondents said 'X'. The problem is that Sweave() converts the results of the expression in \Sexpr{} to a character string, which means that the output from expression in R and the output that appears in my document are different. For example, above I use the function 'p.mean': p.mean<- function (x) {options(digits=1) mmm<-weighted.mean(x, weight=weight, na.rm=T) print(100*mmm) } In R, the output looks like this: p.mean(variable) >14 but when I use \Sexpr{p.mean(variable)}, I get an unrounded character string (in this case: 13.5857142857143) in my document. I have tried to limit the output of my function to 'digits=1' in the global environment, in the function itself, and and in various commands. It only seems to contain what R prints, not the character transformation that is the result of the expression and which eventually prints in the LaTeX file. as.character(p.mean(variable)) >[1] 14 >[1] "13.5857142857143" Does anyone know what I can do to limit the digits printed in the LaTeX file, either by reprogramming the R function or with a setting in Sweave or \Sexpr{}? I'd greatly appreciate any help you can give. Thanks, David

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  • SQL - Converting 24-hour ("military") time (2145) to "AM/PM time" (9:45 pm)

    - by CheeseConQueso
    I have 2 fields I'm working with that are stored as smallint military structured times. Edit I'm running on IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 10.00.FC9 beg_tm and end_tm Sample values beg_tm 545 end_tm 815 beg_tm 1245 end_tm 1330 Sample output beg_tm 5:45 am end_tm 8:15 am beg_tm 12:45 pm end_tm 1:30 pm I had this working in Perl, but I'm looking for a way to do it with SQL and case statements. Is this even possible? EDIT Essentially, this formatting has to be used in an ACE report. I couldn't find a way to format it within the output section using simple blocks of if(beg_tm>=1300) then beg_tm = vbeg_tm - 1200 Where vbeg_tm is a declared char(4) variable EDIT This works for hours =1300 (EXCEPT FOR 2230 !!) select substr((beg_tm-1200),0,1)||":"||substr((beg_tm-1200),2,2) from mtg_rec where beg_tm>=1300; This works for hours < 1200 (sometimes.... 10:40 is failing) select substr((mtg_rec.beg_tm),0,(length(cast(beg_tm as varchar(4)))-2))||":"||(substr((mtg_rec.beg_tm),2,2))||" am" beg_tm from mtg_rec where mtg_no = 1; EDIT Variation of casting syntax used in Jonathan Leffler's expression approach SELECT beg_tm, cast((MOD(beg_tm/100 + 11, 12) + 1) as VARCHAR(2)) || ':' || SUBSTRING(cast((MOD(beg_tm, 100) + 100) as CHAR(3)) FROM 2) || SUBSTRING(' am pm' FROM (MOD(cast((beg_tm/1200) as INT), 2) * 3) + 1 FOR 3), end_tm, cast((MOD(end_tm/100 + 11, 12) + 1) as VARCHAR(2)) || ':' || SUBSTRING(cast((MOD(end_tm, 100) + 100) as CHAR(3)) FROM 2) || SUBSTRING(' am pm' FROM (MOD(cast((end_tm/1200) as INT), 2) * 3) + 1 FOR 3) FROM mtg_rec where mtg_no = 39;

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  • Map enum in JPA with fixed values ?

    - by Kartoch
    I'm looking for the different ways to map an enum using JPA. I especially want to set the integer value of each enum entry and to save only the integer value. @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORITY_") public class Authority implements Serializable { public enum Right { READ(100), WRITE(200), EDITOR (300); private int value; Right(int value) { this.value = value; } public int getValue() { return value; } }; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "AUTHORITY_ID") private Long id; // the enum to map : private Right right; } A simple solution is to use the Enumerated annotation with EnumType.ORDINAL: @Column(name = "RIGHT") @Enumerated(EnumType.ORDINAL) private Right right; But in this case JPA maps the enum index (0,1,2) and not the value I want (100,200,300). Th two solutions I found do not seem simple... First Solution A solution, proposed here, uses @PrePersist and @PostLoad to convert the enum to an other field and mark the enum field as transient: @Basic private int intValueForAnEnum; @PrePersist void populateDBFields() { intValueForAnEnum = right.getValue(); } @PostLoad void populateTransientFields() { right = Right.valueOf(intValueForAnEnum); } Second Solution The second solution proposed here proposed a generic conversion object, but still seems heavy and hibernate-oriented (@Type doesn't seem to exist in JEE): @Type( type = "org.appfuse.tutorial.commons.hibernate.GenericEnumUserType", parameters = { @Parameter( name = "enumClass", value = "Authority$Right"), @Parameter( name = "identifierMethod", value = "toInt"), @Parameter( name = "valueOfMethod", value = "fromInt") } ) Is there any other solutions ? I've several ideas in mind but I don't know if they exist in JPA: use the setter and getter methods of right member of Authority Class when loading and saving the Authority object an equivalent idea would be to tell JPA what are the methods of Right enum to convert enum to int and int to enum Because I'm using Spring, is there any way to tell JPA to use a specific converter (RightEditor) ?

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  • Java equivalent to VS solution file

    - by Chris
    I'm a C# guy trying to learn Java. I understand the syntax and the basic architecture of the Java platform, and have no problem doing smaller projects myself, but I'd really like to be able to download some open source projects to learn from the work of others. However, I'm running into a stumbling block that I can't seem to find any information on. When I download an open source .NET project, I can open the .sln file with visual studio and everything just loads. Sure, there's occasionally a missing reference or something, but there's really very little configuration required to get things going. I'm not sensing the same ease of use with Java. I'm using eclipse at the moment, and it feels like for every project I have to create a brand new Eclipse project using "create from existing source", and almost nothing compiles properly without significant reconfiguration. In the case of web projects, it's even worse, because Eclipse doesn't appear to support creating a web project from existing source. I have to create a standard Java project from source, then then apparently modify the project file to include the bindings for the web toolkit stuff to work properly. Assuming I want to be able to contribute to a project later on, I shouldn't have to be making such drastic changes to the file structure to get my IDE to a workable state. What am I missing?

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  • Contributing to a Linux distribution

    - by Big Al
    I'm interested in contributing to a Linux distro, but regarding the various distro's developer communities, I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out which one I'd most like to join. What languages I know: C, C++, Lua, Python, and fairly familiar with Perl (though I wouldn't say I "know" it). In particular, I have very little experience with x86 assembly besides hacking stuff together for performance tweaks, though that will be partially rectified soon. What I'm looking for: A community that provides plenty of opportunities for developers to work on various aspects of the distribution. To be honest I'm most interested in reading and working on the kernel source (in which case the distro doesn't matter), but it's pretty daunting and I figure getting into the Linux community and working with experienced Linux developers might give me a better idea of how to jump into the guts(let me know if this is bogus, or if you have any advice regarding that). So... Which distro has the "best" developer community in terms of organization, people who are fun to work with, and opportunities to contribute? I've read various "Contributing to XXX" pages and mailing lists for distros like Ubuntu, OpenSuse, Fedora, etc. but I'd rather get a more personal testament from an actual developer.

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  • ASP.NET MVC and WCF

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

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  • Detecting duplicate values in a column of a Datatable while traversing through It

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I have a Datatable with Id(guid) and Name(string) columns. I traverse through the data table and run a validation criteria on the Name (say, It should contain only letters and numbers) and then adding the corresponding Id to a List If name passes the validation. Something like below:- List<Guid> validIds=new List<Guid>(); foreach(DataRow row in DataTable1.Rows) { if(IsValid(row["Name"]) { validIds.Add((Guid)row["Id"]); } } In addition to this validation I should also check If the name is not repeating in the whole datatable (even for the case-sensitiveness), If It is repeating, I should not add the corresponding Id in the List. Things I am thinking/have thought about:- 1) I can have another List, check for the "Name" in the same, If It exists, will add the corresponding Guild 2) I cannot use HashSet as that would treat "Test" and "test" as different strings and not duplicates. 3) Take the DataTable to another one where I have the disctict names (this I havent tried and the code might be incorrect, please correct me whereever possible) DataTable dataTableWithDistinctName = new DataTable(); dataTableWithDistinctName.CaseSensitive=true CopiedDataTable=DataTable1.DefaultView.ToTable(true,"Name"); I would loop through the original datatable and check the existence of the "Name" in the CopiedDataTable, If It exists, I wont add the Id to the List. Are there any better and optimum way to achieve the same? I need to always think of performance. Although there are many related questions in SO, I didnt find a problem similar to this. If you could point me to a question similar to this, It would be helpful. Thanks

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  • How do I correctly install dulwich to get hg-git working on Cygwin?

    - by Erik Vold
    I have a similar issue as in this issue, but in my case I am trying to use cygwin. First I followed the instructions here, and I ran: $ easy_install hg-git The I created ~/.hgrc, with: [extensions] hgext.bookmarks = hggit = Then when I typed 'hg' at a command prompt, I'd see: "* failed to import extension hggit: No module named hggit" So I did a search for "hggit" and found /cygdrive/c/Python26/Lib/site-packages/hg_git-0.2.1-py2.6.egg/hggit, so I updated .hgrc: [extensions] hgext.bookmarks = hggit = /cygdrive/c/Python26/Lib/site-packages/hg_git-0.2.1-py2.6.egg/hggit Then when I type 'hg' I get "No module named dulwich.errors" If you read this question, it's the same problem. In python shell I cannot import dulwich: >>> import dulwich Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named dulwich I checked out my easy-install.pth and it does contain the dulwich egg: import sys; sys.__plen = len(sys.path) ./hg_git-0.2.1-py2.6.egg ./dulwich-0.5.0-py2.6-win32.egg import sys; new=sys.path[sys.__plen:]; del sys.path[sys.__plen:]; p=getattr(sys,'__egginsert',0); sys.path[p:p]=new; sys.__egginsert = p+len(new) So how can I fix this so that import dulwich works, which should fix my problem using hg-git I assume..

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  • Is there something like a "long running offline transaction" for NHibernate or any other ORM?

    - by Vilx-
    In essence this is a followup of this question. I'm beginning to feel that I should give up the whole idea, but I'll give it one more shot. What I want is pretty much like a DB transaction. It should track my changes to the DB and then in the end allow me to either commit or rollback them. If I insert an object, I should get it back in my next (appropriate) SELECT query. If I delete it, future SELECT queries should not return it. Etc. But there is one catch - this transaction would be very long running. It would start when the user opened a form (I'm talking about Windows Forms here), and the commit/rollback would be when the user closed it(with OK/Cancel). So it could take anywhere between seconds and days. This requirement rules out a standard DB transaction because that would lock the tables/rows it touched, and other users wouldn't be able to use the system. Also the transaction should not commit ANY changes to the DB until it was really committed. So if one user makes some changes, others don't see them until OK button is hit. This prevents errors in case the computer crashes or is disconnected from the network. I'm quite OK if the solution puts constraints on my model (I'm using MSSQL 2008, btw). I can design the DB/code any way I like. I'm also fine with the idea that a commit could fail because someone already modified one of the objects my transaction touched. Is there anything like this? I looked at NHibernate.Burrow, but I'm not sure that that's the thing I want. Added: It's the very beginning of the project so I'm not tied to NHibernate. I started out with it but I can still change easily.

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  • Should an Event that has no arguments define its own custom EventArgs or simply use System.EventArgs

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    I have an event that is currently defined with no event arguments. That is, the EventArgs it sends is EventArgs.Empty. In this case, it is simplest to declare my Event handler as: EventHandler<System.EventArgs> MyCustomEvent; I do not plan on adding any event arguments to this event, but it is possible that any code could need to change in the future. Therefore, I am leaning towards having all my events always create an empty event args type that inheretis from System.EventArgs, even if there are no event args currently needed. Something like this: public class MyCustomEventArgs : EventArgs { } And then my event definition becomes the following: EventHandler<MyCustomEventArgs> MyCustomEvent; So my question is this: is it better to define my own MyCustomEventArgs, even if it does not add anything beyond inheriting from System.EventArgs, so that event arguments could be added in the future more easily? Or is it better to explicitly define my event as returning System.EventArgs, so that it is clearer to the user that there are no extra event args? I am leaning towards creating custom event arguments for all my events, even if the event arguments are empty. But I was wondering if others thought that making it clearer to the user that the event arguments are empty would be better? Much thanks in advance, Mike

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  • Designing a fluid Javascript interface to hide callback asynchrony

    - by Anurag
    How would I design an API to hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX and HTTP requests, or basically delay it to provide a fluid interface. To show an example from Twitter's new Anywhere API: // get @ded's first 20 statuses, filter only the tweets that // mention photography, and render each into an HTML element T.User.find('ded').timeline().first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); function filterer(status) { return status.text.match(/photography/); } vs this (asynchronous nature of each call is clearly visible) T.User.find('ded', function(user) { user.timeline(function(statuses) { statuses.first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); }); }); It finds the user, gets their tweet timeline, filters only the first 20 tweets, applies a custom filter, and ultimately uses the callback function to process each tweet. I am guessing that a well designed API like this should work like a query builder (think ORMs) where each function call builds the query (HTTP URL in this case), until it hits a looping function such as each/map/etc., the HTTP call is made and the passed in function becomes the callback. An easy development route would be to make each AJAX call synchronous, but that's probably not the best solution. I am interested in figuring out a way to make it asynchronous, and still hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX.

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  • LinkedIn API returning extra/incorrect login prompt

    - by Paul Osetinsky
    I have a Rails application running the omniauth-linkedin gem and linkedin gem (essentialy an API wrapper). When a user logs in, they receive a primary login prompt that displays to them the correct scopes (FULL PROFILE and EMAIL ADDRESS), as below: However, after they log in, they get another login prompt that should not come up, and that ignores the initial scope request. It tells them that LinkedIN is only requesting their PROFILE OVERVIEW, which is incorrect: The problem must lie in my auth_controller, and I think it has do to with the url that is created in one of the authentication stages (definitely right after the user enters their LinkedIn authentication credentials). Here is my auth_controller: require 'linkedin' class AuthController < ApplicationController def auth client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) request_token = client.request_token(:oauth_callback => "http://#{request.host_with_port}/callback") session[:rtoken] = request_token.token session[:rsecret] = request_token.secret redirect_to client.request_token.authorize_url end def callback client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) if session[:atoken].nil? pin = params[:oauth_verifier] atoken, asecret = client.authorize_from_request(session[:rtoken], session[:rsecret], pin) session[:atoken] = atoken session[:asecret] = asecret @user = current_user @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' else client.authorize_from_access(session[:atoken], session[:asecret]) @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' end @user = current_user @user.save redirect_to current_user end end Just in case, here is my omniauth.rb file that states the scopes I am requesting for my application: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider :linkedin, ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET'], :scope => 'r_fullprofile r_emailaddress', :fields => ['id', 'email-address', 'first-name', 'last-name', 'headline', 'industry', 'picture-url', 'public-profile-url', 'location', 'positions', 'educations'] end Can't figure out how to get rid of that second unnecessary and misleading prompt from LinkedIn and would appreciate any guidance! Thank you.

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