Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 709/854 | < Previous Page | 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716  | Next Page >

  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

    Read the article

  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

    Read the article

  • varargs in lambda functions in Python

    - by brain_damage
    Is it possible a lambda function to have variable number of arguments? For example, I want to write a metaclass, which creates a method for every method of some other class and this newly created method returns the opposite value of the original method and has the same number of arguments. And I want to do this with lambda function. How to pass the arguments? Is it possible? class Negate(type): def __new__(mcs, name, bases, _dict): extended_dict = _dict.copy() for (k, v) in _dict.items(): if hasattr(v, '__call__'): extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) return type.__new__(mcs, name, bases, extended_dict) class P(metaclass=Negate): def __init__(self, a): self.a = a def yes(self): return True def maybe(self, you_can_chose): return you_can_chose But the result is totally wrong: >>>p = P(0) >>>p.yes() True >>>p.not_yes() # should be False Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#150>", line 1, in <module> p.not_yes() File "C:\Users\Nona\Desktop\p10.py", line 51, in <lambda> extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) TypeError: __init__() takes exactly 2 positional arguments (1 given) >>>p.maybe(True) True >>>p.not_maybe(True) #should be False True

    Read the article

  • How to parallelize this groovy code?

    - by lucas
    I'm trying to write a reusable component in Groovy to easily shoot off emails from some of our Java applications. I would like to pass it a List, where Email is just a POJO(POGO?) with some email info. I'd like it to be multithreaded, at least running all the email logic in a second thread, or make one thread per email. I am really foggy on multithreading in Java so that probably doesn't help! I've attempted a few different ways, but here is what I have right now: void sendEmails(List<Email> emails) { def threads = [] def sendEm = emails.each{ email -> def th = new Thread({ Random rand = new Random() def wait = (long)(rand.nextDouble() * 1000) println "in closure" this.sleep wait sendEmail(email) }) println "putting thread in list" threads << th } threads.each { it.run() } threads.each { it.join() } } I was hoping the sleep would randomly slow some threads down so the console output wouldn't be sequential. Instead, I see this: putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list in closure sending email1 in closure sending email2 in closure sending email3 in closure sending email4 in closure sending email5 in closure sending email6 in closure sending email7 in closure sending email8 in closure sending email9 in closure sending email10 sendEmail basically does what you'd expect, including the println statement, and the client that calls this follows, void doSomething() { Mailman emailer = MailmanFactory.getExchangeEmailer() def to = ["one","two"] def from = "noreply" def li = [] def email (1..10).each { email = new Email(to,null,from,"email"+it,"hello") li << email } emailer.sendEmails li }

    Read the article

  • What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

    - by Slava Vishnyakov
    I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Core Data Predicates with Subclassed NSManagedObjects

    - by coneybeare
    I have an AUDIO class. This audio has a SOUND_A subclass and a SOUND_B subclass. This is all done correctly and is working fine. I have another model, lets call it PLAYLIST_JOIN, and this can contain (in the real world) SOUND_A's and SOUND_B's, so we give it a relationship of AUDIO and PLAYLIST. This all works in the app. The problem I am having now is querying the PLAYLIST_JOIN table with an NSPredicate. What I want to do is find an exact PLAYLIST_JOIN item by giving it 2 keys in the predicate sound_a._sound_a_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ and sound_b.sound_b_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ The main problem is that because the table does not store sound_a and sound_b, but stored audio, I cannot use this syntax. I do not have the option of reorganizing the sound_a and sound_b to use the same _id attribute name, so how do I do this? Can I pass a method to the predicate? something like this: [audio getID] = %@ && playlist_id = %@

    Read the article

  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • FMOD Compiling trouble

    - by CptAJ
    I'm trying to get started with FMOD but I'm having some issues compiling the example code in this tutorial: http://www.gamedev.net/reference/articles/article2098.asp I'm using MinGW, I placed the libfmodex.a file in MinGW's include folder (I also tried linking directly to the filename) but it doesn't work. Here's the output. C:\>g++ -o test1.exe test1.cpp -lfmodex test1.cpp:4:1: error: 'FSOUND_SAMPLE' does not name a type test1.cpp: In function 'int main()': test1.cpp:9:29: error: 'FSOUND_Init' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:12:4: error: 'handle' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:12:53: error: 'FSOUND_Sample_Load' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:13:30: error: 'FSOUND_PlaySound' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:21:30: error: 'FSOUND_Sample_Free' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:22:17: error: 'FSOUND_Close' was not declared in this scope This is the particular example I'm using: #include <conio.h> #include "inc/fmod.h" FSOUND_SAMPLE* handle; int main () { // init FMOD sound system FSOUND_Init (44100, 32, 0); // load and play sample handle=FSOUND_Sample_Load (0,"sample.mp3",0, 0, 0); FSOUND_PlaySound (0,handle); // wait until the users hits a key to end the app while (!_kbhit()) { } // clean up FSOUND_Sample_Free (handle); FSOUND_Close(); } I have the header files in the "inc" path where my code is. Any ideas as to what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Reverse geocode street name and city as text

    - by Taylor Satula
    Hello, I have been having some trouble finding a good way to output just the street name and city as text (Infinite Loop, Cupertino shown here) that can be displayed in my iPhone app. This needs to be able to dynamically change as you change streets and city. I don't have the slightest idea of how to do this, I hope someone can help. I have attached a very rough image of what I am trying to acheave. I have found this (http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/javascript/services.html#Geocoding) for google maps about how to reverse geocode using javascript, but what I do not understand is how this would be done in a iPhone development setting. I work in web design and I see how it would be done in HTML but I am very new to iPhone development and don't have the slightest clue of how it would be done here. If someone could spell out how to do this I would be extremely grateful. I cannot seem to find what I am looking for by searching Google. Reference picture: http://www.threepixeldrift.com/images/deep-storage/reversegeocodeiphoneapp.jpg

    Read the article

  • Cakephp Search Plugin: DateTime Range

    - by Chris
    I am trying to search a model by dates using the CakePHP Search plugin The idea is: The user enters a date of a flight and the engine returns all flights within +- one day of that. My form: <?php echo $form->create('Flight', array( 'url' => array_merge(array('action' => 'find'), $this->params['pass']) )); echo $form->input('departure', array('div' => false, 'dateFormat' => 'DMY','timeFormat' => 'NONE')); echo $form->submit(__('Search', true), array('div' => false)); echo $form->end(); ?> My flight model: public $filterArgs = array( array('name' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression', 'method' => 'makeRangeCondition', 'field' => 'ABS((TO_Days(Flight.departure))-( TO_Days(?))) < 2') ); The controller: public $presetVars = array( array('field' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression') ); public function find() { $this->Prg->commonProcess(); $this->paginate['conditions'] = $this->Flight->parseCriteria($this->passedArgs); $this->set('flights', $this->paginate()); } When I try to search, the values for departure are packed in an array; Array ([departure] => Array ) And the filterArgs(...) function doesn't seem to understand this. What is the correct way to do this?

    Read the article

  • DDSteps date question.

    - by Srini
    DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

    Read the article

  • Convert a Dynamic[] construct to a numerical list

    - by Leo Alekseyev
    I have been trying to put together something that allows me to extract points from a ListPlot in order to use them in further computations. My current approach is to select points with a Locator[]. This works fine for displaying points, but I cannot figure out how to extract numerical values from a construct with head Dynamic[]. Below is a self-contained example. By dragging the gray locator, you should be able to select points (indicated by the pink locator and stored in q, a list of two elements). This is the second line below the plot. Now I would like to pass q[[2]] to a function, or perhaps simply display it. However, Mathematica treats q as a single entity with head Dynamic, and thus taking the second part is impossible (hence the error message). Can anyone shed light on how to convert q into a regular list? EuclideanDistanceMod[p1_List, p2_List, fac_: {1, 1}] /; Length[p1] == Length[p2] := Plus @@ (fac.MapThread[Abs[#1 - #2]^2 &, {p1, p2}]) // Sqrt; test1 = {{1.`, 6.340196001221532`}, {1.`, 13.78779876355869`}, {1.045`, 6.2634018978377295`}, {1.045`, 13.754947081416544`}, {1.09`, 6.178367702583522`}, {1.09`, 13.72055251752498`}, {1.135`, 1.8183153704413153`}, {1.135`, 6.082497198000075`}, {1.135`, 13.684582525399742`}, {1.18`, 1.6809452373465104`}, {1.18`, 5.971583107298081`}, {1.18`, 13.646996905469383`}, {1.225`, 1.9480537697339537`}, {1.225`, 5.838386922625636`}, {1.225`, 13.607746407088161`}, {1.27`, 2.1183174369679234`}, {1.27`, 5.669799095595362`}, {1.27`, 13.566771130126131`}, {1.315`, 2.2572975468163463`}, {1.315`, 5.444014254828522`}, {1.315`, 13.523998701347882`}, {1.36`, 2.380307009155079`}, {1.36`, 5.153024664297602`}, {1.36`, 13.479342200528283`}, {1.405`, 2.4941312539733285`}, {1.405`, 4.861423833512566`}, {1.405`, 13.432697814928654`}, {1.45`, 2.6028066447609426`}, {1.45`, 4.619367407525507`}, {1.45`, 13.383942212133244`}}; DynamicModule[{p = {1.2, 10}, q = {1.3, 11}}, q := Dynamic@ First@test1[[ Ordering[{#, EuclideanDistanceMod[p, #, {1, .1}]} & /@ test1, 1, #1[[2]] < #2[[2]] &]]]; Grid[{{Show[{ListPlot[test1, Frame -> True, ImageSize -> 300], Graphics@Locator[Dynamic[p]], Graphics@ Locator[q, Appearance -> {Small}, Background -> Pink]}]}, {Dynamic@p}, {q},{q[[2]]}}]]

    Read the article

  • Java: which configuration framework to use?

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I need to decide which configuration framework to use. At the moment I am thinking between using properties files and XML files. My configuration needs to have some primitive grouping, e.g. in XML format would be something like: <configuration> <group name="abc"> <param1>value1</param1> <param2>value2</param2> </group> <group name="def"> <param3>value3</param3> <param4>value4</param4> </group> </configuration> or a properties file (something similar to log4j.properties): group.abc.param1 = value1 group.abc.param2 = value2 group.def.param3 = value3 group.def.param4 = value4 I need bi-directional (read and write) configuration library/framework. Nice feature would be - that I could read out somehow different configuration groups as different objects, so I could later pass them to different places, e.g. - reading everything what belongs to group "abc" as one object and "def" as another. If that is not possible I can always split single configuration object into smaller ones myself in the application initialization part of course. Which framework would best fit for me?

    Read the article

  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

    - by Schnapple
    Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

    Read the article

  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

    Read the article

  • [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

    - by Luke Mcneice
    Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

    Read the article

  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

    Read the article

  • Can I prevent a Linux user space pthread yielding in critical code?

    - by KermitG
    I am working on an user space app for an embedded Linux project using the 2.6.24.3 kernel. My app passes data between two file nodes by creating 2 pthreads that each sleep until a asynchronous IO operation completes at which point it wakes and runs a completion handler. The completion handlers need to keep track of how many transfers are pending and maintain a handful of linked lists that one thread will add to and the other will remove. // sleep here until events arrive or time out expires for(;;) { no_of_events = io_getevents(ctx, 1, num_events, events, &timeout); // Process each aio event that has completed or thrown an error for (i=0; i<no_of_events; i++) { // Get pointer to completion handler io_complete = (io_callback_t) events[i].data; // Get pointer to data object iocb = (struct iocb *) events[i].obj; // Call completion handler and pass it the data object io_complete(ctx, iocb, events[i].res, events[i].res2); } } My question is this... Is there a simple way I can prevent the currently active thread from yielding whilst it runs the completion handler rather than going down the mutex/spin lock route? Or failing that can Linux be configured to prevent yielding a pthread when a mutex/spin lock is held?

    Read the article

  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

    Read the article

  • PEAR:DB connection parameters

    - by Markus Ossi
    I just finished my first PHP site and now I have a security-related question. I used PEAR:DB for the database connection and made a separate parameter file for it. How should I hide this parameter file? I found a guide (http://www.kitebird.com/articles/peardb.html) that says: Another way to specify connection parameters is to put them in a separate file that you reference from your main script. ... It also enables you to move the parameter file outside of the web server's document tree, which prevents its contents from being displayed literally if the server becomes misconfigured and starts serving PHP scripts as plain text. I have now put my file in a directory like this /include/db_parameters.inc However, if I go to this URL, the web server shows me the contents of the file including my database username and password. From what I've understood, I should protect this file so, that even though PHP would be served as text, nobody could read this. What does outside of web server's document tree mean here? Put the PHP file out of public_html directory altogether deeper into the server file system? Some CHMOD?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716  | Next Page >