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  • Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

    - by Coesy
    Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • Using capistrano to deploy from different git branches

    - by Toms Mikoss
    I am using capistrano to deploy a RoR application. The codebase is in a git repository, and branching is widely used in development. Capistrano uses deploy.rb file for it's settings, one of them being the branch to deploy from. My problem is this: let's say I create a new branch A from master. The deploy file will reference master branch. I edit that, so A can be deployed to test environment. I finish working on the feature, and merge branch A into master. Since the deploy.rb file from A is fresher, it gets merged in and now the deploy.rb in master branch references A. Time to edit again. That's a lot of seemingly unnecessary manual editing - the parameter should always match current branch name. On top of that, it is easy to forget to edit the settings each and every time. What would be the best way to automate this process? Edit: Turns out someone already had done exactly what I needed.

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  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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  • Java downcasting dilemma

    - by Shades88
    please have a look at this code here. class Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("vehicle"); } } class Car extends Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("car"); } } class Bike extends Vehicle{ public void printSound() { System.out.print("bike"); } } public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { Vehicle v = new Car(); Bike b = (Bike)v; v.printSound(); b.printSound(); Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"}; for (String s : (String[])myObj) System.out.print(s + "."); } } Executing this code will give ClassCastException saying inheritance.Car cannot be cast to inheritance.Bike. Now look at the line Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"};. This line is same as Vehicle v = new Car(); right? In both lines we are assigning sub class object to super class reference variable. But downcasting String[]myObj is allowed but (Bike)v is not. Please help me understand what is going on around here.

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  • Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

    - by ILya
    Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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  • Extracting comment url from wordpress function

    - by Pavel
    Hi everyone. I'm developing some ajax script and using wordpress and my question is: is there a way to extract a comment url from a wordpress function somehow? The function I'm using in the loop looks like that: <?php comments_popup_link('Discuss &#187;', '1 Comment &#187;', '% Comments &#187;'); ?> <?php edit_post_link('Edit', '| ', ''); ?> And the HTML output of that looks like this: <a href="http://www.somepage.com/staging/2010/06/15/sadfasfregw/#respond" title="Comment on sadfasfregw"><span class="dsq-postid-17546">View Comments</span></a>| <a class="post-edit-link" href="http://www.factmag.com/staging/wp-admin/post.php?action=edit&post=17546" title="Edit post">Edit</a> However, I'm only interested in src (http://www.somepage.com/staging/2010/06/15/sadfasfregw/#respond). Is there a way to get it from there and then use it in later reference? Does some kind of function or anything like that exists in wordpress? Many thanks in advance for any responses!

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  • When I get the Force Close dialog, I have a Report button. Where did it come from?

    - by BenTobin
    I feel a little bit silly asking this, but I haven't been able to find any answers on my own. My Force Close dialog has a "Report" button. I think it's a great idea, and I wish everyone had it. At first, I thought it must be something I turned on without realizing it, but not only can't I find any setting that I might have touched, I also can't find any reference to this button existing on the Internet. I have a Droid, and I know 4 other people with Droids, and they say they don't have the option to report Force Closes. Am I special? Am I just missing something? The "report" button has been there for at least a few weeks now. When I use the Report button, I get a screen with a "feedback" field and a checkbox for "Include system data". Below that , it says "Information from feedback reports will be shown to the developer of the application." Under that are Preview and Send buttons. As a developer, I've never received one of these reports. I'd try to send a report to myself, but it seemingly only shows the button for apps installed from the market, and I don't know of a way to crash my production app. I suppose I could publish a simple crashing app just to try it out, but I thought I'd ask you folks first. Edit: You can view screenshots here: http://bentobin.com/crashReportImages/

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  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • How do I start a service which is defined in a different package?

    - by Brad Hein
    I have two apps, one runs in namespace com.gtosoft.voyager and the other is com.gtosoft.dash. From com.gtosoft.dash I would like to start up the service which is defined in com.gtosoft.voyager... I think I need an intent, but what arg(s) would I pass to the intent before kicking it off with startService()? If they were in the same package I could just use Intent svc=new Intent (SettingsActivity.this,VoyagerService.class); startService(svc); Snippet of Manifest which defines the service <application android:icon="@drawable/voyagercarlogo" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="false"> <provider android:name="com.gtosoft.voyager.VoyagerCProvider" android:authorities="com.gtosoft.voyager"/> <service android:name=".VoyagerService"/> <activity android:name=".SettingsActivity" android:label="Voyager" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity>

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  • Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

    - by Gohlool
    Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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  • Cakephp Search Plugin: DateTime Range

    - by Chris
    I am trying to search a model by dates using the CakePHP Search plugin The idea is: The user enters a date of a flight and the engine returns all flights within +- one day of that. My form: <?php echo $form->create('Flight', array( 'url' => array_merge(array('action' => 'find'), $this->params['pass']) )); echo $form->input('departure', array('div' => false, 'dateFormat' => 'DMY','timeFormat' => 'NONE')); echo $form->submit(__('Search', true), array('div' => false)); echo $form->end(); ?> My flight model: public $filterArgs = array( array('name' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression', 'method' => 'makeRangeCondition', 'field' => 'ABS((TO_Days(Flight.departure))-( TO_Days(?))) < 2') ); The controller: public $presetVars = array( array('field' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression') ); public function find() { $this->Prg->commonProcess(); $this->paginate['conditions'] = $this->Flight->parseCriteria($this->passedArgs); $this->set('flights', $this->paginate()); } When I try to search, the values for departure are packed in an array; Array ([departure] => Array ) And the filterArgs(...) function doesn't seem to understand this. What is the correct way to do this?

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Why do Scala maps have poor performance relative to Java?

    - by Mike Hanafey
    I am working on a Scala app that consumes large amounts of CPU time, so performance matters. The prototype of the system was written in Python, and performance was unacceptable. The application does a lot with inserting and manipulating data in maps. Rex Kerr's Thyme was used to look at the performance of updating and retrieving data from maps. Basically "n" random Ints were stored in maps, and retrieved from the maps, with the time relative to java.util.HashMap used as a reference. The full results for a range of "n" are here. Sample (n=100,000) performance relative to java, smaller is worse: Update Read Mutable 16.06% 76.51% Immutable 31.30% 20.68% I do not understand why the scala immutable map beats the scala mutable map in update performance. Using the sizeHint on the mutable map does not help (it appears to be ignored in the tested implementation, 2.10.3). Even more surprisingly the immutable read performance is worse than the mutable read performance, more significantly so with larger maps. The update performance of the scala mutable map is surprisingly bad, relative to both scala immutable and plain Java. What is the explanation?

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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