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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

  - by AVH

  I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

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• Use of putty in command line

  - by kij

  Hi, I'm trying to use putty in command line from an hudson job. The command is the following one: putty -ssh -2 -P 22 USERNAME@SERVER_ADDR -pw PASS -m command.txt Where 'command.txt' is a shell script to execute in the server through SSH. If i launch this command from the Window command prompt, it works, the shell script is executed on the server machine. If i launch a build of the hudson job configured with this batch command, it doesn't work. The build is running... and running... and running.. without doing anything, and i have to stop it manually. So my question is: Is it possible to launch an external programm (i.e. putty) from an hudson job ? ps: i tried SSH plugin but... not a really good plugin (pre/post build, fail status of the commands launched not caught by hudson, etc.) Thanks in advance for your help. Best regards. kij

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• Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

  - by Bhaskar

  Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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• Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

  - by ILya

  Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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• Xcode: how to know a header file is actually imported?

  - by Philip007

  To be specific, I am using RestKit framework. I want to use a framework class category called RKObjectManager+RKTableController in my view controller mainTVC. Here is my #import section in mainTVC.m: // framework headers, which should be enough #import <RestKit/RestKit.h> #import <RestKit/UI.h> // my project headers, not relating to framework #import "MainTVC.h" #import "Photo.h" // Do this to guarantee import does happen. But still got error, see below #import <RestKit/RKObjectManager+RKTableController.h> However, Xcode issue an error: No known class method for selector 'fetchRequest:groupedBy:inContext:' For reference, this method is a class method declared only in category header RKObjectManager+RKTableController.h, but not in 'RKObjectManager.h`. Also, I added -ObjC and -all_load to "other linker flags" in build settings, if that's relevant. I suspect the error is caused by the fact that category header is not actually imported somehow. How can I verify that? Or the error is caused by other reasons that I am not aware of. What am I doing wrong?

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• Problem in getting response from server in jquery

  - by Alvin

  Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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• Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

  - by IrfanRaza

  Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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• Passing parameter to pthread

  - by Andrei Ciobanu

  Hello, i have the following code: #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <pthread.h> #define NUM_THREADS 100 struct thread_param { char *f1; char *f2; int x; }; void *thread_function(void *arg){ printf("%d\n", ((struct thread_param*)arg)->x); } int main(int argc, char *argvs[]){ int i, thread_cr_res = 0; pthread_t *threads; threads = malloc(100 * sizeof(*threads)); if(threads == NULL){ fprintf(stderr,"MALLOC THREADS ERROR"); return (-1); } for(i = 0; i < NUM_THREADS; i++){ struct thread_param *tp; if((tp = malloc(sizeof(*tp))) == NULL){ fprintf(stderr,"MALLOC THREAD_PARAM ERROR"); return (-1); } tp->f1 = "f1"; tp->f2 = "f2"; tp->x = i; thread_cr_res = pthread_create(&threads[i], NULL, thread_function, (void*)tp); if(thread_cr_res != 0){ fprintf(stderr,"THREAD CREATE ERROR"); return (-1); } } return (0); } What i want to achieve, is to print all the numbers from 0 to 99, from threads. Also i am experimenting a way to pass a structure as a thread input parameter. What i am finding curios, is that not all the numbers are shown, eg: ./a.out | grep 9 9 19 29 39 49 And sometimes some numbers are shown twice: ... 75 74 89 77 78 79 91 91 Can you please explain me why is this happening ? No errors are shown.

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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• LDAP query using Python: always no result

  - by Grey

  I am trying to use python to query LDAP server, and it always returns me no result. and anyone help me find what wrong with my python code? it runs fine without excpetions, and it always has no result. i played around with the filter like "cn=partofmyname" but just no luck. thanks for help import ldap try: l = ldap.open("server") l.protocol_version = ldap.VERSION3 l.set_option(ldap.OPT_REFERRALS, 0) output =l.simple_bind("cn=username,cn=Users,dc=domian, dc=net",'password$R') print output except ldap.LDAPError, e: print e baseDN = "DC=rim,DC=net" searchScope = ldap.SCOPE_SUBTREE ## retrieve all attributes - again adjust to your needs - see documentation for more options retrieveAttributes = None Filter = "(&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=myaccount))" try: ldap_result_id = l.search(baseDN, searchScope, Filter, retrieveAttributes) print ldap_result_id result_set = [] while 1: result_type, result_data = l.result(ldap_result_id, 0) if len(result_data) == 0: print 'no reslut' break else: for i in range(len(result_set)): for entry in result_set[i]: try: name = entry[1]['cn'][0] email = entry[1]['mail'][0] phone = entry[1]['telephonenumber'][0] desc = entry[1]['description'][0] count = count + 1 print "%d.\nName: %s\nDescription: %s\nE-mail: %s\nPhone: %s\n" %\ (count, name, desc, email, phone) except: pass ## here you don't have to append to a list ## you could do whatever you want with the individual entry #if result_type == ldap.RES_SEARCH_ENTRY: # result_set.append(result_data) # print result_set except ldap.LDAPError, e: print e l.unbind()

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• Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

  - by DroidIn.net

  I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

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• WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

  - by Groky

  I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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• ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

  - by tster

  I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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• MySQL " identify storage engine statement"

  - by sammysmall

  This IS NOT a Homework question! While building my current student database project I realized that I may want to identify comprehensive information about a database design in the future. More-so if I am fortunate enough to get a job in this field and were handed a database project how could I break down certain elements for identification... In all of my previous designs I have been using MySQL Community Server (GPL) 5.1.42, I thought (duh) that I was using the MyISAM based on most of my text-book instruction and MySQL 5.0 Reference Manual :: 13 Storage Engines :: 13.1 The MyISAM Storage Engine I determined that this was in fact incorrect for this version and the use of "SHOW ENGINES" at the console... No problem, figured out why they have "versions" the need to pay attention to what version is being used, and the need for a means to determine what I am about to mess up "if" I do not pay attention to detail... Q1. Specifically what statement will identify the version used by someone elses initial database creation? (since I created my own databases I know what version I used) Q2. Specifically what statement will identify the storage engine that the developer used when creating the database. (I specified a particular database in my collection then tried SHOW Engine, did not work, then tried to just get the metadata from one table in that database: mysql SELECT duck_cust, table_type, engine - FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.tables - WHERE table_schema = 'tp' - ORDER BY table_type ASC, table_name DESC; as this was not really what I wanted (and did not work) I am looking for some direction from the pros... Q3. (If you really have the inclination to continue helping) If I were to access a database from an earlier/later "version" are there backward/forward compatibility issues for maintaining/updating data between versions? Please and Thank you in advance for your time and efforts! sammysmall

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• ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

  - by Colin

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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• Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

  - by Gary McGill

  Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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• Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

  - by Gohlool

  Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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• python crc32 woes

  - by lazyr

  I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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• Entity Framework and WCf

  - by Nihilist

  Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

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• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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