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  • SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

    - by gbn
    We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

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  • Dependency injection in constructors

    - by andre
    Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Constraint to array dimension in C language

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    int KMP( const char *original, int o_len, const char *substring, int s_len ){ if( o_len < s_len ) return -1; int k = 0; int cur = 1; int fail[ s_len ]; fail[ k ] = -1; while( cur < s_len ){ k = cur - 1; do{ if( substring[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ fail[ cur ] = k; break; }else{ k = fail[ k ] + 1; } }while( k ); if( !k && ( substring[ cur ] != substring[ 0 ] ) ){ fail[ cur ] = -1; }else if( !k ){ fail[ cur ] = 0; } cur++; } k = 0; cur = 0; while( ( k < s_len ) && ( cur < o_len ) ){ if( original[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ cur++; k++; }else{ if( k == 0 ){ cur++; }else{ k = fail[ k - 1 ] + 1; } } } if( k == s_len ) return cur - k; else return -1; } This is a KMP algorithm I once coded. When I reviewed it this morning, I find it strange that an integer array is defined as int fail[ s_len ]. Does the specification requires dimesion of arrays compile-time constant? How can this code pass the compilation? By the way, my gcc version is 4.4.1. Thanks in advance!

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  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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  • How to parallelize this groovy code?

    - by lucas
    I'm trying to write a reusable component in Groovy to easily shoot off emails from some of our Java applications. I would like to pass it a List, where Email is just a POJO(POGO?) with some email info. I'd like it to be multithreaded, at least running all the email logic in a second thread, or make one thread per email. I am really foggy on multithreading in Java so that probably doesn't help! I've attempted a few different ways, but here is what I have right now: void sendEmails(List<Email> emails) { def threads = [] def sendEm = emails.each{ email -> def th = new Thread({ Random rand = new Random() def wait = (long)(rand.nextDouble() * 1000) println "in closure" this.sleep wait sendEmail(email) }) println "putting thread in list" threads << th } threads.each { it.run() } threads.each { it.join() } } I was hoping the sleep would randomly slow some threads down so the console output wouldn't be sequential. Instead, I see this: putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list in closure sending email1 in closure sending email2 in closure sending email3 in closure sending email4 in closure sending email5 in closure sending email6 in closure sending email7 in closure sending email8 in closure sending email9 in closure sending email10 sendEmail basically does what you'd expect, including the println statement, and the client that calls this follows, void doSomething() { Mailman emailer = MailmanFactory.getExchangeEmailer() def to = ["one","two"] def from = "noreply" def li = [] def email (1..10).each { email = new Email(to,null,from,"email"+it,"hello") li << email } emailer.sendEmails li }

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • Optimization of Function with Dictionary and Zip()

    - by eWizardII
    Hello, I have the following function: def filetxt(): word_freq = {} lvl1 = [] lvl2 = [] total_t = 0 users = 0 text = [] for l in range(0,500): # Open File if os.path.exists("C:/Twitter/json/user_" + str(l) + ".json") == True: with open("C:/Twitter/json/user_" + str(l) + ".json", "r") as f: text_f = json.load(f) users = users + 1 for i in range(len(text_f)): text.append(text_f[str(i)]['text']) total_t = total_t + 1 else: pass # Filter occ = 0 import string for i in range(len(text)): s = text[i] # Sample string a = re.findall(r'(RT)',s) b = re.findall(r'(@)',s) occ = len(a) + len(b) + occ s = s.encode('utf-8') out = s.translate(string.maketrans("",""), string.punctuation) # Create Wordlist/Dictionary word_list = text[i].lower().split(None) for word in word_list: word_freq[word] = word_freq.get(word, 0) + 1 keys = word_freq.keys() numbo = range(1,len(keys)+1) WList = ', '.join(keys) NList = str(numbo).strip('[]') WList = WList.split(", ") NList = NList.split(", ") W2N = dict(zip(WList, NList)) for k in range (0,len(word_list)): word_list[k] = W2N[word_list[k]] for i in range (0,len(word_list)-1): lvl1.append(word_list[i]) lvl2.append(word_list[i+1]) I have used the profiler to find that it seems the greatest CPU time is spent on the zip() function and the join and split parts of the code, I'm looking to see if there is any way I have overlooked that I could potentially clean up the code to make it more optimized, since the greatest lag seems to be in how I am working with the dictionaries and the zip() function. Any help would be appreciated thanks!

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  • Paramiko ssh output stops at --more--

    - by Anesh
    The output stops printing at --more-- any idea how to get the end of the output >>> import paramiko >>> ssh = paramiko.SSHClient() >>> ssh.set_missing_host_key_policy(paramiko.AutoAddPolicy()) >>> conn=ssh.connect("ipaddress",username="user", password="pass") >>> channel = ssh.invoke_shell() >>> channel.send("en\n") 3 >>> channel.send("password\n") 9 >>> channel.send("show security local-user-list\n") 30 >>> results = '' >>> channel.send("\n") 1 >>> results += channel.recv(5000) >>> print results bluecoat>en Password: bluecoat#show security local-user-list Default List: local_user_database Append users loaded from file to default list: false local_user_database Lockout parameters: Max failed attempts: 60 Lockout duration: 3600 Reset interval: 7200 Users: Groups: admin_local Lockout parameters: Max failed attempts: 60 Lockout duration: 3600 Reset interval: 7200 Users: <username> Hashed Password: Enabled: true Groups: <username> Hashed Password: Enabled: true **--More--** As you can see above the output stops printing at --more-- any idea how to get the output to print till the end.

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  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

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  • Disable ARC with Xcode 5

    - by user2187565
    First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • Looping over commits for a file with jGit

    - by Andy Jarrett
    I've managed to get to grips with the basics of jGit file in terms of connecting to a repos and adding, commiting, and even looping of the commit messages for the files. File gitDir = new File("/Users/myname/Sites/helloworld/.git"); RepositoryBuilder builder = new RepositoryBuilder(); Repository repository; repository = builder.setGitDir(gitDir).readEnvironment() .findGitDir().build(); Git git = new Git(repository); RevWalk walk = new RevWalk(repository); RevCommit commit = null; // Add all files // AddCommand add = git.add(); // add.addFilepattern(".").call(); // Commit them // CommitCommand commit = git.commit(); // commit.setMessage("Commiting from java").call(); Iterable<RevCommit> logs = git.log().call(); Iterator<RevCommit> i = logs.iterator(); while (i.hasNext()) { commit = walk.parseCommit( i.next() ); System.out.println( commit.getFullMessage() ); } What I want to do next is be able to get all the commit message for a single file and then be able revert the single file back to a specific reference/point in time.

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  • Python FTP grabbing and saving images issue

    - by PylonsN00b
    OK So I have been messing with this all day long. I am fairly new to Python FTP. So I have searched through here and came up w/ this: images = notions_ftp.nlst() for image_name in image_names: if found_url == False: try: for image in images: ftp_image_name = "./%s" % image_name if ftp_image_name == image: found_url = True image_name_we_want = image_name except: pass # We failed to find an image for this product, it will have to be done manually if found_url == False: log.info("Image ain't there baby -- SKU: %s" % sku) return False # Hey we found something! Open the image.... notions_ftp.retrlines("RETR %s" % image_name_we_want, open(image_name_we_want, "rb")) 1/0 So I have narrowed the error down to the line before I divide by zero. Here is the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 6, in <module> File "<console>", line 39, in insert_image IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '411483CC-IT,IM.jpg' So if you follow the code you will see that the image IS in the directory because image_name_we_want is set if found in that directory listing on the first line of my code. And I KNOW it's there because I am looking at the FTP site myself and ...it's freakin there. So at some point during all of this I got the image to save locally, which is most desired, but I have long since forgot what I used to make it do that. Either way, why does it think that the image isn't there when it clearly finds it in the listing.

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  • Const_cast on a this pointer - would I get told off by other C++ coders for doing this?

    - by BeeBand
    I have a class Game e.g. class Game { public: InitObjects(); ... }; And I have another class Grid, that needs to be initialised with a non-const reference to that Game object. ( A Grid object needs to call functions that can update a Game object ). class Grid { public: Grid(Game & g): game(g){} ... private: Game & game; ... }; The Game object is responsible for initialising the Grid. I did this: void Game::InitObjects() { grid = new Grid(*(const_cast<Game*>(this)) ); } grid is not a member of a Game - it's a global ( argh - i know... I don't mind making it a member, but I have the same problem right? ). Can some seasoned C++ folk tell me if this odd looking const_cast is acceptable?

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

    - by Steve
    I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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