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  • Cannot rollback ransaction with Entity Framework

    - by Luca
    I have to do queries on uncommitted changes and I tried to use transactions, but I found that it do not work if there are exceptions. I made a simple example to reproduce the problem. I have a database with only one table called "Tabella" and the table has two fields: "ID" is a autogenerated integer, and "Valore" is an integer with a Unique constraint. Then I try to run this code: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Db1Container db1 = new Db1Container(); try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); //Unique constraint is violated here and an exception is thrown } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 2 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } //scope.Complete(); //NEVER called } //here everything should be rolled back Now if I look into the database it should contain no records because the transaction should rollback, instead I find two records!!!! One with Valore=1 and one with Valore=2. I am missing something? It looks like the second call to SaveChanges method rollback its own changes and "deletes" the transaction, then the third call to SaveChanges commits the changes of the first and the third insert (at this point it is like the transaction not exists). I also tried to use SaveChanges(false) method (even without calling AcceptAllChanges method), but with no success: I have the same behaviour. I do not want the transaction to be rolled back automatically by SaveChanges, because I want to correct the errors (for example by user interaction in the catch statement) and make a retry. Can someone help me with this? It seems like a "bug", and it is giving me a really big headache...

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  • Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

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  • Multiple asynchronous method calls to method while in a loop

    - by ranabra
    I have spent a whole day trying various ways using 'AddOnPreRenderCompleteAsync' and 'RegisterAsyncTask' but no success so far. I succeeded making the call to the DB asynchronous using 'BeginExecuteReader' and 'EndExecuteReader' but that is missing the point. The asynch handling should not be the call to the DB which in my case is fast, it should be afterwards, during the 'while' loop, while calling an external web-service. I think the simplified pseudo code will explain best: (Note: the connection string is using 'MultipleActiveResultSets') "Select ID, UserName from MyTable" 'Open connection to DB ExecuteReader(); if (DR.HasRows) {     while (DR.Read())     {         'Call external web-service         'and get current Temperature of each UserName - DR["UserName"].ToString()         'Update my local DB         Update MyTable set Temperature = ValueFromWebService where UserName =                                       DR["UserName"]         CmdUpdate.ExecuteNonQuery();     }     'Close connection etc } Accessing the DB is fast. Getting the returned result from the external web-service is slow and that at least should be handled Asynchnously. If each call to the web service takes just 1 second, assuming I have only 100 users it will take minimum 100 seconds for the DB update to complete, which obviously is not an option. There eventually should be thousands of users (currently only 2). Currently everything works, just very synchnously :) Thoughts to myself: Maybe my way of approaching this is wrong? Maybe the entire process should be called Asynchnously Many thanx

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  • Custom xsl rendering for lookup field in list view (SharePoint 2010)

    - by Luc
    I'm trying to change rendering of a list column on list view page. After a few tutorials and some hair pulling I managed to create an xslt for a calculated and currency field (from fldtypes_XXXXXX.xsl): <xsl:template match ="FieldRef[@Name='MarkCalc']" mode="Text_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <xsl:value-of select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" disable-output-escaping ="yes"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="FieldRef[@Name='CurrencyTest']" mode="Number_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <b><xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" /></b> </xsl:template> Then I tried to do the same for a lookup field, but it just won't work. This is my last attempt (I copied it from SharePoint designer). What am I missing? <xsl:template match="FieldRef[(@Encoded) and @Name='Lookup1']" mode="Lookup_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <b><xsl:value-of select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" disable-output-escaping="yes" /></b> </xsl:template>

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  • htaccess redirect http to https on a magento site

    - by joesalvator
    I have a magento site and i need to have it redirect to https, i have the cert installed but i am not sure how to mod the htaccess file? here is a copy of the root htaccess file thanks # uncomment these lines for CGI mode make sure to specify the correct cgi php binary file name it might be /cgi-bin/php-cgi Action php5-cgi /cgi-bin/php5-cgi AddHandler php5-cgi .php # GoDaddy specific options Options -MultiViews you might also need to add this line to php.ini cgi.fix_pathinfo = 1 if it still doesn't work, rename php.ini to php5.ini # this line is specific for 1and1 hosting #AddType x-mapp-php5 .php #AddHandler x-mapp-php5 .php # default index file DirectoryIndex index.php # adjust memory limit php_value memory_limit 64M php_value memory_limit 128M php_value max_execution_time 18000 # disable magic quotes for php request vars php_flag magic_quotes_gpc off # disable automatic session start before autoload was initialized php_flag session.auto_start off # enable resulting html compression #php_flag zlib.output_compression on # disable user agent verification to not break multiple image upload php_flag suhosin.session.cryptua off # turn off compatibility with PHP4 when dealing with objects php_flag zend.ze1_compatibility_mode Off # disable POST processing to not break multiple image upload SecFilterEngine Off SecFilterScanPOST Off # # Insert filter on all content ###SetOutputFilter DEFLATE # Insert filter on selected content types only #AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/html text/plain text/xml text/css text/javascript # Netscape 4.x has some problems... #BrowserMatch ^Mozilla/4 gzip-only-text/html # Netscape 4.06-4.08 have some more problems #BrowserMatch ^Mozilla/4\.0[678] no-gzip # MSIE masquerades as Netscape, but it is fine #BrowserMatch \bMSIE !no-gzip !gzip-only-text/html # Don't compress images #SetEnvIfNoCase Request_URI \.(?:gif|jpe?g|png)$ no-gzip dont-vary # Make sure proxies don't deliver the wrong content #Header append Vary User-Agent env=!dont-vary # make HTTPS env vars available for CGI mode SSLOptions StdEnvVars # enable rewrites Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # you can put here your magento root folder path relative to web root #RewriteBase /magento/ # workaround for HTTP authorization in CGI environment RewriteRule .* - [E=HTTP_AUTHORIZATION:%{HTTP:Authorization}] # always send 404 on missing files in these folders RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/(media|skin|js)/ # never rewrite for existing files, directories and links RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l # rewrite everything else to index.php RewriteRule .* index.php [L] # Prevent character encoding issues from server overrides If you still have problems, use the second line instead AddDefaultCharset Off #AddDefaultCharset UTF-8 # s ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" # By default allow all access Order allow,deny Allow from all

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  • Complex Types, ModelBinders and Interfaces

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've a scenario where I need to bind to an interface - in order to create the correct type, I've got a custom model binder that knows how to create the correct concrete type (which can differ). However, the type created never has the fields correctly filled in. I know I'm missing something blindingly simple here, but can anyone tell me why or at least what I need to do for the model binder to carry on it's work and bind the properties? public class ProductModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { override public object BindModel (ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { if (bindingContext.ModelType == typeof (IProduct)) { var content = GetProduct (bindingContext); return content; } var result = base.BindModel (controllerContext, bindingContext); return result; } IProduct GetProduct (ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var idProvider = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue ("Id"); var id = (Guid)idProvider.ConvertTo (typeof (Guid)); var repository = RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<IProductRepository> (); var product = repository.Get (id); return product; } } The Model in my case is a complex type that has an IProduct property, and it's those values I need filled in. Model: [ProductBinder] public class Edit : IProductModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } public byte[] Version { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } }

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  • How to get rank from full-text search query with Linq to SQL?

    - by Stephen Jennings
    I am using Linq to SQL to call a stored procedure which runs a full-text search and returns the rank plus a few specific columns from the table Article. The rank column is the rank returned from the SQL function FREETEXTTABLE(). I've added this sproc to the data model designer with return type Article. This is working to get the columns I need; however, it discards the ranking of each search result. I'd like to get this information so I can display it to the user. So far, I've tried creating a new class RankedArticle which inherits from Article and adds the column Rank, then changing the return type of my sproc mapping to RankedArticle. When I try this, an InvalidOperationException gets thrown: Data member 'Int32 ArticleID' of type 'Heap.Models.Article' is not part of the mapping for type 'RankedArticle'. Is the member above the root of an inheritance hierarchy? I can't seem to find any other questions or Google results from people trying to get the rank column, so I'm probably missing something obvious here.

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  • Connecting to Oracle 10g from .NET

    - by Xinus
    I am trying to connect to oracle server located at some IP address but always get error as System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection' threw an exception. --- Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException The provider is not compatible with the version of Oracle client at Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleInit.Initialize() at Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection..cctor() --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at WebApplication1._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Users\Sunil\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\WebApplication1\WebApplication1\Default.aspx.cs:line 26 Here is a test file using System; using System.Collections; using System.Configuration; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Xml.Linq; using Oracle.DataAccess.Client; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { string oradb = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=" + "(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=192.168.1.11)(PORT=1523)))" + "(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" + "User Id=<user id>;Password=<some password>;"; OracleConnection conn = new OracleConnection(oradb); // C# conn.Open(); } catch (Exception ex){ Label1.Text = ex.ToString(); } } } } I have installed 10gR2 client and oracle 10gR2 provider for ASP.NET. Am I missing anything ?

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  • Nested WHILE loops in Python

    - by Guru
    I am a beginner with Python and trying few programs. I have something like the following WHILE loop construct in Python (not exact). IDLE 2.6.4 >>> a=0 >>> b=0 >>> while a < 4: a=a+1 while b < 4: b=b+1 print a, b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 I am expecting the outer loop to loop through 1,2,3 and 4. And I know I can do this with FOR loop like this >>> for a in range(1,5): for b in range(1,5): print a,b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 But, what is wrong with WHILE loop? I guess I am missing some thing obvious, but could not make out. P.S: Searched out SO, found few questions but none as close to this. Don't know whether this could classified as homework, the actual program was different, the problem is what puzzles me.

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  • Android SDK fails to install

    - by Paul Breed
    When I try to install the android SDK it fails to install. My OS is Windows XP I just downloaded and installed Java JDK 1.6 Java -version from the command line returns: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/ask java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 14.3-b01, mixed mode, sharing) My environment vars have: JAVA_HOME=c:\progra~1\java\jdk1.6.0_11 I downloaded android-sdk-r04-windows.zip I unziped it in V:\AndroidInstall\ When I go to the V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows and type "SDK Install.exe" nothing happens... If I go this from graph When I do this from a graphical file viewer I get a quick flash that looks like a command line window and nothing.... When I try to run android list targets from the tool directory I get: Error: Error parsing the sdk. Error: V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows\platforms is missing. Error: Unable to parse SDK content. So the basic install setup is not happening. Additional clues: I have a G1 and Android 1.0 was running on this machine. (Almost a year ago) I've updated my G1 to 1.6 so I thought I'd update my SDK before starting new development. When I tried to upgrade it tried and then died as the "directory was in use" So I cleaned out all the android directories, rebooted and redownloaded everythign from scratch. Now it won't run at all. I've clearly got something in an unhappy state, but I've cleaned up all the directories and no remanants seem to be running I've rebooted.... I've missed somethign I just can't figure out what. Paul

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  • How to prove writing specifications beats code cowboys?

    - by Andrew Grant
    So I have a problem. Or rather my friend has a problem, since I would never write about my company on an internet forum. At my friend's company specification writing is, shall we say, a little underused. There's a deeply ingrained culture of writing code first and asking questions later, whether it's for a library routine or a new tool to inflict on their long suffering designers. This of course leads to situations where functionality is partially correct, incorrect, or just completely missing ("oh, just save before trying anything you may want to undo"). This usually results in a loss of productivity for those poor designers, or beta periods where bug-fixing is largely spent implementing things correctly. My friend's found his suggestions of writing (and testing against) specifications to be generally well received. Most of his colleagues have embraced the wonderful feeling of discovering false-assumptions on paper, instead of at 11pm on a Sunday in the middle of beta. Viva La Revolution! However there are a few who poo-poo anything that stands between their task and a keyboard. They laugh at the thought of actually designing anything, and write code with merry abandon. Mostly these are senior, long employed developers, reluctant to "waste time". The problem is that this second group of heretics invariably produce things (or at least something) quicker than the first. Subsequently this becomes justification along the lines of "It's pointless to write specifications for something as simple as an image resizer! Oh and those bugs where width!=height or the image uses RLE just need a few tweaks". And now the question :) Other than saying "told you so" at the end of a project, what are some good short-term ways to demonstrate how the practice of writing functional or technical specifications leads to better software in the long run? Cheers!

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  • Using a custom MvcHttpHandler v2.0 Breaking change from 1.0 to 2.0 ?

    - by Myster
    Hi I have a site where part is webforms (Umbraco CMS) and part is MVC This is the HttpHandler to deal with the MVC functionality: public class Mvc : MvcHttpHandler { protected override void ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) { httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "Begin ProcessRequest"); string originalPath = httpContext.Request.Path; string newPath = httpContext.Request.QueryString["mvcRoute"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(newPath)) newPath = "/"; httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "newPath = "+newPath ); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(newPath, false); base.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } } Full details of how this is implemented here This method works well in an MVC 1.0 website. However when I upgrade this site to MVC 2.0 following the steps in Microsoft's upgrade documentation; everything compiles, except at runtime I get this exception: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /mvc.ashx Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 This resource and it's dependencies are found fine in MVC 1.0 but not in MVC 2.0, is there an extra dependency I'd need to add? Is there something I'm missing? Is there a change in the way MVC 2.0 works?

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  • Single Sign On for Web Application and Application in Virtual Directory

    - by Stefan
    To enable single sign-on for a web application and a web application in a virtual directory, I set the machinekey in both apps to the same: <machineKey validationKey="xxx" decryptionKey="yy" validation="SHA1" /> The single sign on works just fine, but existing users can't sign in any more; their passwords are rejected. The machinekey used to be this in the parent application: <machineKey validationKey="xxx,IsolateApps" decryptionKey="yy,IsolateApps" validation="SHA1" /> I tried other ways to make single sign on work, but it just won't as long as the keys contain "IsolateApps". What am I missing? I should add that the in the membership provider, passwordFormat is set to "Encrypted". So I assume the password was encrypted using the key that contained "IsolateApps" and now when it tries to validate the password it's using the key without the "IsolateApps". Still not sure how to solve that problem. Is there maybe a way that I can set the encryption keys for the password separately from the one that is used for the authentication cookie?

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  • SQL Injection Protection for dynamic queries

    - by jbugeja
    The typical controls against SQL injection flaws are to use bind variables (cfqueryparam tag), validation of string data and to turn to stored procedures for the actual SQL layer. This is all fine and I agree, however what if the site is a legacy one and it features a lot of dynamic queries. Then, rewriting all the queries is a herculean task and it requires an extensive period of regression and performance testing. I was thinking of using a dynamic SQL filter and calling it prior to calling cfquery for the actual execution. I found one filter in CFLib.org (http://www.cflib.org/udf/sqlSafe): <cfscript> /** * Cleans string of potential sql injection. * * @param string String to modify. (Required) * @return Returns a string. * @author Bryan Murphy ([email protected]) * @version 1, May 26, 2005 */ function metaguardSQLSafe(string) { var sqlList = "-- ,'"; var replacementList = "#chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)##chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)# , #chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(51)##chr(57)##chr(59)#"; return trim(replaceList( string , sqlList , replacementList )); } </cfscript> This seems to be quite a simple filter and I would like to know if there are ways to improve it or to come up with a better solution?

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  • Cannot access updated Java object from Saxon XSLT processor

    - by chipk
    I am working with an open source version of the Saxon XSLT processor "Saxon 9.0.0.2J from Saxonica" and am trying to make use of the java extensibility for the first time. I am running into an issue I suspect may be a limitation on the open source version, but wanted to check first whether there might be something I am just missing here. From the snippet below, my result is that the final value of $c1 does not change as a result of the call to greg:setTime() - i.e. the $c1 variable within Saxon appears to be unhooked from the underlying Java object and there is no apparent way to access the object as updated by the setTime() call. NOTE that all code in the snippet is tested and working otherwise - i.e. $c1 is properly instantiated by the getInstance() call, $startdate is of the proper format and $d1 is properly instantiated. Thoughts? <xsl:transform ..... xmlns:sql="java:java.sql.Date" xmlns:greg="java:java.util.GregorianCalendar" ..... > .... <xsl:element name="JobExpireDate"> <xsl:variable name="c1" select="greg:getInstance()" /> <xsl:variable name="d1" select="sql:valueOf($startdate)" /> <xsl:variable name="void" select="greg:setTime($c1,$d1)" /> <xsl:value-of select="$c1" /> </xsl:element>

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  • WCF: Per-Call and Per-Session services...need convincing that Per-Call is worthwhile

    - by mrlane
    Hello all. We are currently doing a review of our WCF service design and one thing that is bothering me is the decision between Per-Call and Per-Session services. I believe I understand the concept behind both, but I am not really seeing the advantage of Per-Call services. I understand that the motivation for using Per-Call services is that a WCF services only holds a servier object for the life of a call thereby restricting the time that an expensive resource is held by the service instance, but to me its much simpler to use the more OO like Per-Session model where your proxy object instance always corrisponds to the same server object instance and just handle any expensive resources manually. For example, say I have a CRUD Service with Add, Update, Delete, Select methods on it. This could be done as a Per-Call service with database connection (the "expensive resource") instanciated in the server object constructor. Alternately it could be a Per-Session service with a database connection instanciated and closed within each CRUD method exposed. To me it is no different resource wise and it makes the programming model simpler as the client can be assured that they always have the same server object for their proxies: any in-expensive state that there may be between calls is maintained and no extra parameters are needed on methods to identify what state data must be retrieved by the service when it is instanciating a new server object again (as in the case of Per-Call). Its just like using classes and objects, where the same resource management issues apply, but we dont create new object instances for each method call we have on an object! So what am I missing with the Per-Call model? Thanks

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  • MS Chart in WPF, Setting the DataSource is not creating the Series

    - by Shaik Phakeer
    Hi All, Here I am trying to assign the datasource (using same code given in the sample application) and create a graph, only difference is i am doing it in WPF WindowsFormsHost. due to some reason the datasource is not being assigned properly and i am not able to see the series ("Series 1") being created. wired thing is that it is working in the Windows Forms application but not in the WPF one. am i missing something and can somebody help me? Thanks <Window x:Class="SEDC.MDM.WinUI.WindowsFormsHostWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:wf="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Forms;assembly=System.Windows.Forms" xmlns:CHR="clr- namespace:System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Forms.Dat aVisualization" Title="HostingWfInWpf" Height="230" Width="338"> <Grid x:Name="grid1"> </Grid> </Window> private void drawChartDataBinding() { System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost host = new System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost(); string fileNameString = @"C:\Users\Shaik\MSChart\WinSamples\WinSamples\data\chartdata.mdb"; // initialize a connection string string myConnectionString = "PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + fileNameString; // define the database query string mySelectQuery = "SELECT * FROM REPS;"; // create a database connection object using the connection string OleDbConnection myConnection = new OleDbConnection(myConnectionString); // create a database command on the connection using query OleDbCommand myCommand = new OleDbCommand(mySelectQuery, myConnection); Chart Chart1 = new Chart(); // set chart data source Chart1.DataSource = myCommand; // set series members names for the X and Y values Chart1.Series"Series 1".XValueMember = "Name"; Chart1.Series"Series 1".YValueMembers = "Sales"; // data bind to the selected data source Chart1.DataBind(); myCommand.Dispose(); myConnection.Close(); host.Child = Chart1; this.grid1.Children.Add(host); } Shaik

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  • Does Android XML Layout's 'include' Tag Really Work?

    - by Eric Burke
    I am unable to override attributes when using <include> in my Android layout files. When I searched for bugs, I found Declined Issue 2863: "include tag is broken (overriding layout params never works)" Since Romain indicates this works in the test suites and his examples, I must be doing something wrong. My project is organized like this: res/layout buttons.xml res/layout-land receipt.xml res/layout-port receipt.xml The buttons.xml contains something like this: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <Button .../> <Button .../> </LinearLayout> And the portrait and landscape receipt.xml files look something like: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> ... <!-- Overridden attributes never work. Nor do attributes like the red background, which is specified here. --> <include android:id="@+id/buttons_override" android:background="#ff0000" android:layout_width="fill_parent" layout="@layout/buttons"/> </LinearLayout> What am I missing?

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  • Integrate Google Maps API into an iPhone app

    - by Corey Floyd
    Update: iPhone SDk 3.0 now addresses the question here, however the NDA prevents any in depth discussion. Log in to the iPhone Dev Center if you need more info. Ok, I have to admit I'm a little lost here. I am fairly comfortable with Cocoa, but am having trouble picking up the bit of javascript needed to solve this problem. I am trying to send a request to Google for a reverse geo code. I have looked over the Google documentation I have viewed here: http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/index.html http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/geocoding/ Even after a rough reading, I am missing a basic concept: How do I talk to google? In some examples, they show a url being sent to google (which seems easy enough), but in others they show javascript. It seems for reverse geocoding, the request might be be harder than sending the url with some parameters (but I hope I am wrong). Can someone point me to the correct way to make a request? (In objective-C, so I can wrap my head around it)

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  • ASP.NET Convert to Web App question

    - by mattgcon
    The following web control will not convert for some reason (add designer and cs pages). I am getting a page directive is missing error What is wrong with the code that is causing it to not convert? <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <%@ Register TagPrefix="ipam" TagName="tnavbar" src="~/controls/tnavbar.ascx" %> <script language="C#" runat="server"> string strCurrent = ""; string strDepth = ""; public string Current { get { return strCurrent; } set { strCurrent = value; } } public string Depth { get { return strDepth; } set { strDepth = value; } } void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { idTnavbar.Current = strCurrent; idTnavbar.Item1Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item1Link; idTnavbar.Item2Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item2Link; idTnavbar.Item3Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item3Link; idTnavbar.Item4Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item4Link; idTnavbar.Item5Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item5Link; idTnavbar.Item6Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item6Link; idTnavbar.Item7Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item7Link; } </script> <ipam:tnavbar id="idTnavbar" Item1="2000 -- 2001" Item1Link="2000_--_2001.aspx" Item2="2001 -- 2002" Item2Link="2001_--_2002.aspx" Item3="2002 -- 2003" Item3Link="2002_--_2003.aspx" Item4="2003 -- 2004" Item4Link="2003_--_2004.aspx" Item5="2004 -- 2005" Item5Link="2004_--_2005.aspx" Item6="2005 -- 2006" Item6Link="2005_--_2006.aspx" Item7="2006 -- 2007" Item7Link="2006_--_2007.aspx" runat="server" /> Please help, if I can solve this issue many more pages will be fixed to.

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  • Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

    - by Tarun
    I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Java: How to have an ArrayList as instance variable of an object?

    - by JDelage
    All, I'm working on a class project to build a little Connect4 game in Java. My current thinking is to have a class of Columns that have as instance variable a few integers (index, max. length, isFull?) and one ArrayList to receive both the integers above and the plays of each players (e.g., 1's and 0's standing for X's and O's). This is probably going to be split between 2 classes but the question remains the same. My current attempt looks like this: import java.util.ArrayList; public class Conn4Col { public int hMax; public int index; public final int initialSize = 0; public final int fullCol = 0; public ArrayList<Integer>; (...)} Unfortunately, this doesn't compile. The compiler says an is missing where my ArrayList declaration stands. We're just starting objects and we haven't really looked into other instance variables than the basic types. Can someone tell me where my error is and how to correct it? Many thanks, JDelage

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  • Defining reliable SIlverlight 4 architecture

    - by doteneter
    Hello everybody, It's my first question on SO. I know that there were many topics on Silverlight and architecture but didn't find answers that satisfies me. I'm ASP.NET MVC developer and are used to work on architectures built with the best practices (loose coupling with DI, etc.) Now I'm faced to the new Silverlight 4 project and would like to be sure I'm doing the best choices as I'm not experienced. Main features required by the applications are as follows : use existing SQL Server Database but with possibility to move to the cloud. using EF4 for the data acess with SQL Server. exitensibility : adding new modules without changing the main host. loose coupling. I was looking at different webcasts (Taulty, etc.), blogs about Silverlight and came up with the following architecture. EF 4 for data access (as specified with the requirements) WCF RIA Services for mid-tiers controling access to data for queries and enabling end-to-end support for data validation, authentication and roles. MEF Support for enabling modules. Unity 2.0 for DI. The problem is that I don't know how to define a reliable architecture where all these elements play well together. Should I use a framework instead like Prism or Caliburn? But for now I'm not sure what scenarios they support. What's the best usages for Unity in Silverlight ? I used to use IoC in ASP.NET MVC for loos coupling and other things like interception for audit logging. It seems that for Silverlight Unity doesn't support Interception. I would like to use it to enable loose coupling and to enable to move to the cloud if needed. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Silverlight 4: How to find source UI element from contextmenu's menuitem_click?

    - by funwithcoding
    I have a datagrid and I added silverlight 4 toolkit contextmenu to textbox in datagrid as follows. When users right click on the textbox, contextmenu is being displayed. When users click the menu item with Header "Test", "MenuItem_Click" is getting executed. Now I want to access the textbox from the MenuItem_Click and modify its properties like background etc. Is there anyway to find textbox element(which is contextmenu's parent) from MenuItem_Click event? It appears to me that I am missing something very simple. <my:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding AcctId}" Style="{StaticResource documentTextBoxStyle}" ToolTipService.ToolTip="Right Click to modify parameters" > <toolkit:ContextMenuService.ContextMenu > <toolkit:ContextMenu > <toolkit:MenuItem Header="Test" Click="MenuItem_Click"/> </toolkit:ContextMenu> </toolkit:ContextMenuService.ContextMenu> </TextBox> </DataTemplate>

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  • CALayer won't display

    - by Paul from Boston
    I'm trying to learn how to use CALayers for a project and am having trouble getting sublayers to display. I created a vanilla View-based iPhone app in XCode for these tests. The only real code is in the ViewController which sets up the layers and their delegates. There is a delegate, DelegateMainView, for the viewController's view layer and a second different one, DelegateStripeLayer, for an additional layer. The ViewController code is all in awakeFromNib, - (void)awakeFromNib { DelegateMainView *oknDelegate = [[DelegateMainView alloc] init]; self.view.layer.delegate = oknDelegate; CALayer *newLayer = [CALayer layer]; DelegateStripeLayer *sldDelegate = [[DelegateStripeLayer alloc] init]; newLayer.delegate = sldDelegate; [self.view.layer addSublayer:newLayer]; [newLayer setNeedsDisplay]; [self.view.layer setNeedsDisplay]; } The two different delegates are simply wrappers for the CALayer delegate method, drawLayer:inContext:, i.e., - (void)drawLayer:(CALayer *)layer inContext:(CGContextRef)context { CGRect bounds = CGContextGetClipBoundingBox(context); ... do some stuff here ... CGContextStrokePath(context); } each a bit different. The layer, view.layer, is drawn properly but newLayer is never drawn. If I put breakpoints in the two delegates, the program stops in DelegateMainView but never reaches DelegateStripeLayer. What am I missing here? Thanks.

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