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  • Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

    - by whaka
    One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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  • Cannot .Count() on IQueryable (NHibernate)

    - by Bruno Reis
    Hello, I'm with an irritating problem. It might be something stupid, but I couldn't find out. I'm using Linq to NHibernate, and I would like to count how many items are there in a repository. Here is a very simplified definition of my repository, with the code that matters: public class Repository { private ISession session; /* ... */ public virtual IQueryable<Product> GetAll() { return session.Linq<Product>(); } } All the relevant code in the end of the question. Then, to count the items on my repository, I do something like: var total = productRepository.GetAll().Count(); The problem is that total is 0. Always. However there are items in the repository. Furthermore, I can .Get(id) any of them. My NHibernate log shows that the following query was executed: SELECT count(*) as y0_ FROM [Product] this_ WHERE not (1=1) That must be that "WHERE not (1=1)" clause the cause of this problem. What can I do to be able .Count() the items in my repository? Thanks! EDIT: Actually the repository.GetAll() code is a little bit different... and that might change something! It is actually a generic repository for Entities. Some of the entities implement also the ILogicalDeletable interface (it contains a single bool property "IsDeleted"). Just before the "return" inside the GetAll() method I check if if the Entity I'm querying implements ILogicalDeletable. public interface IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll(); ... } public abstract class Repository<TEntity, TId> : IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { public virtual IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll() { if (typeof (ILogicalDeletable).IsAssignableFrom(typeof (TEntity))) { return session.Linq<TEntity>() .Where(x => (x as ILogicalDeletable).IsDeleted == false); } else { return session.Linq<TEntity>(); } } } public interface ILogicalDeletable { bool IsDeleted {get; set;} } public Product : Entity<Product, int>, ILogicalDeletable { ... } public IProductRepository : IRepository<Product, int> {} public ProductRepository : Repository<Product, int>, IProductRepository {} Edit 2: actually the .GetAll() is always returning an empty result-set for entities that implement the ILogicalDeletable interface (ie, it ALWAYS add a WHERE NOT (1=1) clause. I think Linq to NHibernate does not like the typecast.

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  • Can I use WCF to replace my current Web Service and Window Service combination?

    - by gun_shy
    I need a little bit of advise regarding the situation I am faced with. The current arrangement I have been tasked with improving just doesn't sit well with me and I feel like there is a better way to do it. The more I read about WCF, the more I get the feeling that it might be what I am looking for. Right now, I have an asp.net client, a .net web service, a windows service, a ms sql database, and a third party application that is used for processing a group of 'project' files into a finalized file. Since the third party application can only handle processing one 'project' at a time, the combination of the web service, window service, and database have been arranged to create a job queue manager for the third party application. The client sends a zip 'project' file containing multiple sub files to the web service. The web service adds a new 'project' line to the database, generating a unique job id. The zip file is expanded to a folder location on the server using the job id as the folder name. The web service then returns the job id to the client. The client will use this id to poll the web service for the status of the job submitted. When the job is complete, the client will request the processed file. The windows service polls the database every x minutes. If a new job exists, the service will pull the oldest job and send it to the third party app for processing. If the processing succeeds, the window service updates the project line in the database, marking the job complete. The window service will continue to process any non complete jobs in the database until there are no more. When it stops finding any jobs, it will sleep x minutes and then poll the database again. I do not like the fact that the window service has to poll the database. If there is only one job submitted, the client will have to wait for the window service to poll and then wait while the 'project' is being processed. It seems like WCF could be used to combine the web and window services using a combination of the InstanceContextMode.Single and ConcurrencyMode.Multiple. So far, I have been unable to find any articles or examples that would point me in the right direction. Can WCF be utilized to accomplish the job queue logic of the current arrangement in a better way? As always, any help is more than appreciated.

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  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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  • Paperclip not running tasks but not showing errors

    - by Trip
    This is strange. I just did a deploy to a cluster server, and since then, pictures have not been processing. Reading the logs, I usually do not get an error at all, but they never finish. However, on one particular image, I found this little bit at least, but this might not explain everything.. Any ideas? Processing PhotosController#edit (for 69.248.152.173 at 2010-05-27 04:25:12) [GET] Parameters: {"gallery_id"="2102", "action"="edit", "type"="photo", "id"="15453", "crop"="true", "controller"="photos", "organization_id"="470", "_"="1274959512393"} Rendering media/crop_photo ActionView::TemplateError (/data/HQ_Channel/releases/20100524111501/public/system/photos/15453/original/DSC05193.JPG is not recognized by the 'identify' command.) on line #4 of app/views/media/crop_photo.js.haml: 1: == $("#media_header").html('#{ escape_javascript(render :partial = 'media/crop_photo') }').slideDown("slow"); 2: 3: :plain 4: function updateForm(coords) 5: { 6: var rx = #{PHOTO_IMAGE_WIDTH} / coords.w; 7: var ry = #{PHOTO_IMAGE_HEIGHT} / coords.h; vendor/gems/thoughtbot-paperclip-2.3.1/lib/paperclip/geometry.rb:24:in `from_file' app/models/photo.rb:68:in `photo_geometry' app/views/media/crop_photo.js.haml:4:in `_run_haml_app47views47media47crop_photo46js46haml' haml (2.2.2) [v] lib/haml/helpers/action_view_mods.rb:13:in `render' app/controllers/photos_controller.rb:81:in `crop' app/controllers/photos_controller.rb:24:in `edit' haml (2.2.2) [v] rails/./lib/sass/plugin/rails.rb:19:in `process' lib/flash_session_cookie_middleware.rb:14:in `call' vendor/gems/hoptoad_notifier-2.2.2/lib/hoptoad_notifier/rack.rb:27:in `call' ** [Hoptoad] Failure: Net::HTTPClientError ** [Hoptoad] Environment Info: [Ruby: 1.8.6] [Rails: 2.3.3] [Env: production] ** [Hoptoad] Response from Hoptoad: No project exists with the given API key. Rendering /data/HQ_Channel/releases/20100524111501/public/500.html (500 Internal Server Error) And then a little later, I got this : ActionView::TemplateError (/data/HQ_Channel/releases/20100524111501/public/system/photos/15453/original/DSC05193.JPG is not recognized by the 'identify' command.) on line #4 of app/views/media/crop_photo.js.haml: 1: == $("#media_header").html('#{ escape_javascript(render :partial = 'media/crop_photo') }').slideDown("slow"); 2: 3: :plain 4: function updateForm(coords) 5: { 6: var rx = #{PHOTO_IMAGE_WIDTH} / coords.w; 7: var ry = #{PHOTO_IMAGE_HEIGHT} / coords.h; vendor/gems/thoughtbot-paperclip-2.3.1/lib/paperclip/geometry.rb:24:in `from_file' app/models/photo.rb:68:in `photo_geometry' app/views/media/crop_photo.js.haml:4:in `_run_haml_app47views47media47crop_photo46js46haml' haml (2.2.2) [v] lib/haml/helpers/action_view_mods.rb:13:in `render' app/controllers/photos_controller.rb:81:in `crop' app/controllers/photos_controller.rb:24:in `edit' haml (2.2.2) [v] rails/./lib/sass/plugin/rails.rb:19:in `process' lib/flash_session_cookie_middleware.rb:14:in `call' vendor/gems/hoptoad_notifier-2.2.2/lib/hoptoad_notifier/rack.rb:27:in `call' ** [Hoptoad] Failure: Net::HTTPClientError ** [Hoptoad] Environment Info: [Ruby: 1.8.6] [Rails: 2.3.3] [Env: production] ** [Hoptoad] Response from Hoptoad: No project exists with the given API key. Rendering /data/HQ_Channel/releases/20100524111501/public/500.html (500 Internal Server Error)

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  • Specify a base classes template parameters while instantiating a derived class?

    - by DaClown
    Hi, I have no idea if the title makes any sense but I can't find the right words to descibe my "problem" in one line. Anyway, here is my problem. There is an interface for a search: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class Search { public: virtual void search (InputType) = 0; virtual void getResult(ResultType&) = 0; }; and several derived classes like: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class XMLSearch : public Search<InputType, ResultType> { public: void search (InputType) { ... }; void getResult(ResultType&) { ... }; }; The derived classes shall be used in the source code later on. I would like to hold a simple pointer to a Search without specifying the template parameters, then assign a new XMLSearch and thereby define the template parameters of Search and XMLSearch Search *s = new XMLSearch<int, int>(); I found a way that works syntactically like what I'm trying to do, but it seems a bit odd to really use it: template <typename T> class Derived; class Base { public: template <typename T> bool GetValue(T &value) { Derived<T> *castedThis=dynamic_cast<Derived<T>* >(this); if(castedThis) return castedThis->GetValue(value); return false; } virtual void Dummy() {} }; template <typename T> class Derived : public Base { public: Derived<T>() { mValue=17; } bool GetValue(T &value) { value=mValue; return true; } T mValue; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Base *v=new Derived<int>; int i=0; if(!v->GetValue(i)) std::cout<<"Wrong type int."<<std::endl; float f=0.0; if(!v->GetValue(f)) std::cout<<"Wrong type float."<<std::endl; std::cout<<i<<std::endl<<f; char c; std::cin>>c; return 0; } Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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  • How to get all captures of subgroup matches with preg_match_all()?

    - by hakre
    Update/Note: I think what I'm probably looking for is to get the captures of a group in PHP. Referenced: PCRE regular expressions using named pattern subroutines. (Read carefully:) I have a string that contains a variable number of segments (simplified): $subject = 'AA BB DD '; // could be 'AA BB DD CC EE ' as well I would like now to match the segments and return them via the matches array: $pattern = '/^(([a-z]+) )+$/i'; $result = preg_match_all($pattern, $subject, $matches); This will only return the last match for the capture group 2: DD. Is there a way that I can retrieve all subpattern captures (AA, BB, DD) with one regex execution? Isn't preg_match_all suitable for this? This question is a generalization. Both the $subject and $pattern are simplified. Naturally with such the general list of AA, BB, .. is much more easy to extract with other functions (e.g. explode) or with a variation of the $pattern. But I'm specifically asking how to return all of the subgroup matches with the preg_...-family of functions. For a real life case imagine you have multiple (nested) level of a variant amount of subpattern matches. Example This is an example in pseudo code to describe a bit of the background. Imagine the following: Regular definitions of tokens: CHARS := [a-z]+ PUNCT := [.,!?] WS := [ ] $subject get's tokenized based on these. The tokenization is stored inside an array of tokens (type, offset, ...). That array is then transformed into a string, containing one character per token: CHARS -> "c" PUNCT -> "p" WS -> "s" So that it's now possible to run regular expressions based on tokens (and not character classes etc.) on the token stream string index. E.g. regex: (cs)?cp to express one or more group of chars followed by a punctuation. As I now can express self-defined tokens as regex, the next step was to build the grammar. This is only an example, this is sort of ABNF style: words = word | (word space)+ word word = CHARS+ space = WS punctuation = PUNCT If I now compile the grammar for words into a (token) regex I would like to have naturally all subgroup matches of each word. words = (CHARS+) | ( (CHARS+) WS )+ (CHARS+) # words resolved to tokens words = (c+)|((c+)s)+c+ # words resolved to regex I could code until this point. Then I ran into the problem that the sub-group matches did only contain their last match. So I have the option to either create an automata for the grammar on my own (which I would like to prevent to keep the grammar expressions generic) or to somewhat make preg_match working for me somehow so I can spare that. That's basically all. Probably now it's understandable why I simplified the question. Related: pcrepattern man page Get repeated matches with preg_match_all()

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Finding good heuristic for A* search

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to find the optimal solution for a little puzzle game called Twiddle (an applet with the game can be found here). The game has a 3x3 matrix with the number from 1 to 9. The goal is to bring the numbers in the correct order using the minimum amount of moves. In each move you can rotate a 2x2 square either clockwise or counterclockwise. I.e. if you have this state 6 3 9 8 7 5 1 2 4 and you rotate the upper left 2x2 square clockwise you get 8 6 9 7 3 5 1 2 4 I'm using a A* search to find the optimal solution. My f() is simply the number of rotations need. My heuristic function already leads to the optimal solution but I don't think it's the best one you can find. My current heuristic takes each corner, looks at the number at the corner and calculates the manhatten distance to the position this number will have in the solved state (which gives me the number of rotation needed to bring the number to this postion) and sums all these values. I.e. You take the above example: 6 3 9 8 7 5 1 2 4 and this end state 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 then the heuristic does the following 6 is currently at index 0 and should by at index 5: 3 rotations needed 9 is currently at index 2 and should by at index 8: 2 rotations needed 1 is currently at index 6 and should by at index 0: 2 rotations needed 4 is currently at index 8 and should by at index 3: 3 rotations needed h = 3 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 10 But there is the problem, that you rotate 4 elements at once. So there a rare cases where you can do two (ore more) of theses estimated rotations in one move. This means theses heuristic overestimates the distance to the solution. My current workaround is, to simply excluded one of the corners from the calculation which solves this problem at least for my test-cases. I've done no research if really solves the problem or if this heuristic still overestimates in same edge-cases. So my question is: What is the best heuristic you can come up with? (Disclaimer: This is for a university project, so this is a bit of homework. But I'm free to use any resource if can come up with, so it's okay to ask you guys. Also I will credit Stackoverflow for helping me ;) )

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  • When may I ask a question to fellow developers? (Rules before asking questions).

    - by Zwei Steinen
    I assigned a quite simple task to one junior developer today, and he kept pinging me EVERY 5 minutes for HOURS, asking STEP BY STEP, what to do. Whenever something went wrong, he simply copy&pasted the log and basically wrote, "An exception occurred. What should I do?" So I finally had to tell him, "If you want to be a developer, please start thinking a little bit. Read the error message. That's what they are for!". I also however, tell junior developers to ask questions before spending too much time trying to solve it themselves. This might sound contradictory, but I feel there is some kind of an implicit rule that distinguishes questions that should be asked fairly quickly and that should not (and I try to follow those rules when I ask questions..) So my question is, do you have any rules that you follow, or expect others to follow on asking questions? If so, what are they? Let me start with my own. If you have struggled for more than 90 min, you may ask that question (exceptions exists). If you haven't struggled for more than 15 min, you may not ask that question (if you are sure that the answer can not be found within 15 min, this rule does not have to apply). If it is completely out of your domain and you do not plan to learn that domain, you may ask that question after 15 min (e.g. if I am a java programmer and need to back up the DB, I may ask the DBA what procedure to follow after googling for 15 min). If it is a "local" question, whose answer is difficult to derive or for which resources is difficult to get (e.g. asking an colleague "what method xxx does" etc.), you may ask that question after 15 min. If the answer for it is difficult to derive, and you know that the other person knows the answer, you may ask the question after 15 min (e.g. asking a hibernate expert "What do I need to change else to make this work?". If the process to derive the answer is interesting and is a good learning opportunity, you may ask for hints but you may not ask for answers! What are your rules?

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  • How to add a title attribute to every option of an ASP.NET DropDownList

    - by zuallauz
    I'm working on an older ASP.NET project (not MVC I don't think) and one of the features they require is to view a description of an item when they hover over that item in a dropdown list. This can be simply done with HTML using the following code and making use of title text: <select> <option value="1" title="Option 1 Desc">Option 1</option> <option value="2" title="Option 2 Desc">Option 2</option> <option value="3" title="Option 3 Desc">Option 3</option> </select> Ok so how do I do this using ASP.NET DropDownList control? I have the following code: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownListLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="DropDownListLocation_OnSelectedIndexChanged" CssClass="editorFieldServerControl" ClientIDMode="Static"></asp:DropDownList> And in the 'code behind' page: private void PopulateFacilityDropdown(List<FacilityAvailableByLocation> facilities, int? selectedID) { DropDownListFacility.DataSource = facilities; DropDownListFacility.DataTextField = "FacilityName"; DropDownListFacility.DataValueField = "FacilityID"; DropDownListFacility.DataBind(); DropDownListFacility.Items.Insert(0, new System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListItem("", "")); if (selectedID.HasValue && selectedID.Value > 0) DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = facilities.FindIndex(b => b.FacilityID == selectedID.Value); else DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = 0; } } Basically each facility in the list of facilities there has properties for an ID, Name, Description that I can get out. I just want to be able to put a title attribute on each <option> that gets rendered and put the description into it. Either that or be able to add a custom attribute like 'data-description' to each <option> tag then I can add the title into each option tag myself using a bit of jQuery which is easy enough. I miss the days where you could just loop through a list and output the custom dropdown code manually. Any ideas? Many thanks

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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • Database design advice needed.

    - by user346271
    Hi all, I'm a lone developer for a telecoms company, and am after some database design advice from anyone with a bit of time to answer. I am inserting into one table ~2 million rows each day, these tables then get archived and compressed on a monthly basis. Each monthly table contains ~15,000,000 rows. Although this is increasing month on month. For every insert I do above I am combining the data from rows which belong together and creating another "correlated" table. This table is currently not being archived, as I need to make sure I never miss an update to the correlated table. (Hope that makes sense) Although in general this information should remain fairly static after a couple of days of processing. All of the above is working perfectly. However my company now wishes to perform some stats against this data, and these tables are getting too large to provide the results in what would be deemed a reasonable time. Even with the appropriate indexes set. So I guess after all the above my question is quite simple. Should I write a script which groups the data from my correlated table into smaller tables. Or should I store the queries result sets in something like memcache? I'm already using mysqls cache, but due to having limited control over how long the data is stored for, it's not working ideally. The main advantages I can see of using something like memcache: No blocking on my correlated table after the query has been cashed. Greater flexibility of sharing the collected data between the backend collector and front end processor. (i.e custom reports could be written in the backend and the results of these stored in the cache under a key which then gets shared with anyone who would want to see the data of this report) Redundancy and scalability if we start sharing this data with a large amount of customers. The main disadvantages I can see of using something like memcache: Data is not persistent if machine is rebooted / cache is flushed. The main advantages of using MySql Persistent data. Less code changes (although adding something like memcache is trivial anyway) The main disadvantages of using MySql Have to define table templates every time I want to store provide a new set of grouped data. Have to write a program which loops through the correlated data and fills these new tables. Potentially will still grow slower as the data continues to be filled. Apologies for quite a long question. It's helped me to write down these thoughts here anyway, and any advice/help/experience with dealing with this sort of problem would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. Alan

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  • Is 4-5 years the “Midlife Crisis” for a programming career?

    - by Jeffrey
    I’ve been programming C# professionally for a bit over 4 years now. For the past 4 years I’ve worked for a few small/medium companies ranging from “web/ads agencies”, small industry specific software shops to a small startup. I've been mainly doing "business apps" that involves using high-level programming languages (garbage collected) and my overall experience was that all of the works I’ve done could have been more professional. A lot of the things were done incorrectly (in a rush) mainly due to cost factor that people always wanted something “now” and with the smallest amount of spendable money. I kept on thinking maybe if I could work for a bigger companies or a company that’s better suited for programmers, or somewhere that's got the money and time to really build something longer term and more maintainable I may have enjoyed more in my career. I’ve never had a “mentor” that guided me through my 4 years career. I am pretty much blog / google / self taught programmer other than my bachelor IT degree. I’ve also observed another issue that most so called “senior” programmer in “my working environment” are really not that senior skill wise. They are “senior” only because they’ve been a long time programmer, but the code they write or the decisions they make are absolutely rubbish! They don't want to learn, they don't want to be better they just want to get paid and do what they've told to do which make sense and most of us are like that. Maybe that’s why they are where they are now. But I don’t want to become like them I want to be better. I’ve run into a mental state that I no longer intend to be a programmer for my future career. I started to think maybe there are better things out there to work on. The more blogs I read, the more “best practices” I’ve tried the more I feel I am drifting away from “my reality”. But I am not a great programmer otherwise I don't think I am where I am now. I think 4-5 years is a stage that can be a step forward career wise or a step out of where you are. I just wanted to hear what other have to say about what I’ve mentioned above and whether you’ve experienced similar situation in your past programming career and how you dealt with it. Thanks.

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  • Form value field is visable in localhost but not on live site-how to hide?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm almost completed moving my first live site to my new xampp setup on localhost. I have a form that uses jquery in the header of the site. It's a bit verbose, but here it is: <div class="outeremailcontainer"> <div id="emailcontainer"> <?php include('verify.php'); ?> <form action="index_success.php" method="post" id="sendEmail" class="email"> <h3 class="register2">Newsletter Signup:</h3> <ul class="forms email"> <li class="name"><label for="yourName">Name: </label> <input type="text" name="yourName" class="info" id="yourName" value="<?= $_POST['yourName']; ?>" /><br /> </li> <li class="city"><label for="yourCity">City: </label> <input type="text" name="yourCity" class="info" id="yourCity" value="<?= $_POST['yourCity']; ?>" /><br /> </li> <li class="email"><label for="emailFrom">Email: </label> <input type="text" name="emailFrom" class="info" id="emailFrom" value="<?= $_POST['emailFrom']; ?>" /> <?php if(isset($emailFromError)) echo '<span class="error">'.$emailFromError.'</span>'; ?> </li> <li class="buttons email"> <button type="submit" id="submit">Send</button> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" id="submitted" value="true" /> </li> </ul> </form> <div class="clearing"> </div> </div> </div> So I am using jQuery (I can include the function if need-be) and it hides fields, etc. The problem is that on the localhost site, the values of the fields are populating the fields. IE: first field has this in the box, etc <?= $_POST['yourName']; ?> It works great in the live site though. Any idea how to fix this? Thanks!

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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  • Sound Complete Not Firing (AS3)

    - by JasonMc92
    I have a bit of a quandary. I need to call a function inside a MovieClip once a particular sound has finished playing. The sound is played via a sound channel in an external class which I have imported. Playback is working perfectly. Here is the relevent code from my external class, Sonus. public var SFXPRChannel:SoundChannel = new SoundChannel; var SFXPRfishbeg:Sound = new sfxpr_fishbeg(); var SFXPRfishmid:Sound = new sfxpr_fishmid(); var SFXPRfishend3:Sound = new sfxpr_fishend3(); var SFXPRfishend4:Sound = new sfxpr_fishend4() public function PlayPrompt(promptname:String):void { var sound:String = "SFXPR" + promptname; SFXPRChannel = this[sound].play(); } This is called via an import in the document class "osr", thus I access it in my project via "osr.Sonus.---" In my project, I have the following line of code. osr.Sonus.SFXPRChannel.addEventListener(Event.SOUND_COMPLETE, promptIsFinished); function prompt():void { var level = osr.Gradua.Fetch("fish", "arr_con_level"); Wait(true); switch(level) { case 1: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishbeg"); break; case 2: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishmid"); break; case 3: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishend3"); break; case 4: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishend4"); break; } } function Wait(yesno):void { gui.Wait(yesno); } function promptIsFinished(evt:Event):void { Wait(false); } osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt(...) and gui.Wait(...) both work perfectly, as I use them in other contexts in this part of the project without error. Basically, after the sound finishes playing, I need Wait(false); to be called, but the event listener does not appear to be "hearing" the SOUND_COMPLETE event. Did I make a mistake somewhere? For the record, due to my project structure, I cannot call the appropriate Wait(...) function from within Sonus. Help?

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  • AudioTrack lag: obtainBuffer timed out

    - by BTR
    I'm playing WAVs on my Android phone by loading the file and feeding the bytes into AudioTrack.write() via the FileInputStream BufferedInputStream DataInputStream method. The audio plays fine and when it is, I can easily adjust sample rate, volume, etc on the fly with nice performance. However, it's taking about two full seconds for a track to start playing. I know AudioTrack has an inescapable delay, but this is ridiculous. Every time I play a track, I get this: 03-13 14:55:57.100: WARN/AudioTrack(3454): obtainBuffer timed out (is the CPU pegged?) 0x2e9348 user=00000960, server=00000000 03-13 14:55:57.340: WARN/AudioFlinger(72): write blocked for 233 msecs, 9 delayed writes, thread 0xba28 I've noticed that the delayed write count increases by one every time I play a track -- even across multiple sessions -- from the time the phone has been turned on. The block time is always 230 - 240ms, which makes sense considering a minimum buffer size of 9600 on this device (9600 / 44100). I've seen this message in countless searches on the Internet, but it usually seems to be related to not playing audio at all or skipping audio. In my case, it's just a delayed start. I'm running all my code in a high priority thread. Here's a truncated-yet-functional version of what I'm doing. This is the thread callback in my playback class. Again, this works (only playing 16-bit, 44.1kHz, stereo files right now), it just takes forever to start and has that obtainBuffer/delayed write message every time. public void run() { // Load file FileInputStream mFileInputStream; try { // mFile is instance of custom file class -- this is correct, // so don't sweat this line mFileInputStream = new FileInputStream(mFile.path()); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) {} BufferedInputStream mBufferedInputStream = new BufferedInputStream(mFileInputStream, mBufferLength); DataInputStream mDataInputStream = new DataInputStream(mBufferedInputStream); // Skip header try { if (mDataInputStream.available() > 44) mDataInputStream.skipBytes(44); } catch (IOException e) {} // Initialize device mAudioTrack = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, ConfigManager.SAMPLE_RATE, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_STEREO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, ConfigManager.AUDIO_BUFFER_LENGTH, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); mAudioTrack.play(); // Initialize buffer byte[] mByteArray = new byte[mBufferLength]; int mBytesToWrite = 0; int mBytesWritten = 0; // Loop to keep thread running while (mRun) { // This flag is turned on when the user presses "play" while (mPlaying) { try { // Check if data is available if (mDataInputStream.available() > 0) { // Read data from file and write to audio device mBytesToWrite = mDataInputStream.read(mByteArray, 0, mBufferLength); mBytesWritten += mAudioTrack.write(mByteArray, 0, mBytesToWrite); } } catch (IOException e) { } } } } If I can get past the artificially long lag, I can easily deal with the inherit latency by starting my write at a later, predictable position (ie, skip past the minimum buffer length when I start playing a file).

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  • Populating data in multiple cascading dropdown boxes in Access 2007

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hello all, I've been assigned the task to design a temporary customer tracking system in MS Access 2007 (sheeeesh!). The tables and relationships have all been setup successfully. But I'm running into a minor problem while trying to design the data entry form for one table... Here's a bit of explanation first. The screen contains 3 dropdown boxes (apart from other fields). 1st dropdown The first dropdown (cboMarket) represents the Market lets users select between 2 options: Domestic International Since the first dropdown contains only 2 items I didn't bother making a table for it. I added them as pre-defined list items. 2nd dropdown Once the user makes a selection in this one, the second dropdown (cboLeadCategory) loads up a list of Lead Categories, namely, Fairs & Exhibitions, Agents, Press Ads, Online Ads etc. Different sets of lead categories are utilized for the 2 markets. Hence this box is dependent on the 1st one. Structure of the bound table, named Lead_Cateogries for the 2nd combo is: ID Autonumber Lead_Type TEXT <- actually a list that takes up Domestic or International Lead_Category_Name TEXT 3rd dropdown And based on the choice of category in the 2nd one, the third one (cboLeadSource) is supposed to display a pre-defined set of lead sources belonging to the particular category. Table is named Lead_Sources and the structure is: ID Autonumber Lead_Category NUMBER <- related to ID of Lead Categories table Lead_Source TEXT When I make the selection in the 1st dropdown, the AfterUpdate event of the combo is called, which instructs the 2nd dropdown to load contents: Private Sub cboMarket_AfterUpdate() Me![cboLead_Category].Requery End Sub The Row Source of the 2nd combo contains a query: SELECT Lead_Categories.ID, Lead_Categories.Lead_Category_Name FROM Lead_Categories WHERE Lead_Categories.Lead_Type=[cboMarket] ORDER BY Lead_Categories.Lead_Category_Name; The AfterUpdate event of 2nd combo is: Private Sub cboLeadCategory_AfterUpdate() Me![cboLeadSource].Requery End Sub The Row Source of 3rd combo contains: SELECT Leads_Sources.ID, Leads_Sources.Lead_Source FROM Leads_Sources WHERE [Lead_Sources].[Lead_Category]=[Lead_Categories].[ID] ORDER BY Leads_Sources.Lead_Source; Problem When I select Market type from cboMarket, the 2nd combo cboLeadCategory loads up the appropriate Categories without a hitch. But when I select a particular Category from it, instead of the 3rd combo loading the lead source names, a modal dialog is displayed asking me to Enter a Parameter. When I enter anything into this prompt (valid or invalid data), I get yet another prompt: Why is this happening? Why isn't the 3rd box loading the source names as desired. Can any one please shed some light on where I am going wrong? Thanks, m^e

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  • SQL Design Question regarding schema and if Name value pair is the best solution

    - by Aur
    I am having a small problem trying to decide on database schema for a current project. I am by no means a DBA. The application parses through a file based on user input and enters that data in the database. The number of fields that can be parsed is between 1 and 42 at the current moment. The current design of the database is entirely flat with there being 42 columns; some have repeated columns such as address1, address2, address3, etc... This says that I should normalize the data. However, data integrity is not needed at this moment and the way the data is shaped I'm looking at several joins. Not a bad thing but the data is still in a 1 to 1 relationship and I still see a lot of empty fields per row. So my concerns are that this does not allow the database or the application to be very extendable. If they want to add more fields to be parsed (which they do) than I'd need to create another table and add another foreign key to the linking table. The third option is I have a table where the fields are defined and a table for each record. So what I was thinking is to make a table that stores the value and then links to those two tables. The problem is I can picture the size of that table growing large depending on the input size. If someone gives me a file with 300,000 records than 300,000 x 40 = 12 million so I have some reservations. However I think if I get to that point than I should be happy it is being used. This option also allows for more custom displaying of information albeit a bit more work but little rework even if you add more fields. So the problem boils down to: 1. Current design is a flat file which makes extending it hard and it is not normalized. 2. Normalize the tables although no real benefits for the moment but requirements change. 3. Normalize it down into the name value pair and hope size doesn't hurt. There are a large number of inserts, updates, and selects against that table. So performance is a worry but I believe the saying is design now, performance testing later? I'm probably just missing something practical so any comments would be appreciated even if it’s a quick sanity check. Thank you for your time.

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  • Ajax page.replace_html problems with partials in Rails

    - by Chris Power
    Hello, I am having a problem with a pretty simple AJAX call in rails. I have a blog-style application and each post has a "like" feature. I want to be able to increment the "like" on each post in the index using AJAX onclick. I got it to work; however, the DOM is a bit tricky here, because no matter what partial its looking at, it will only update the TOP partial. so if I click "like" on post #2, it will update and replace the "likes" on post #1 instead. Code for _post partial: <some code here...> <div id="postcontent"> Posted <%= post.created_at.strftime("%A, %b %d")%> <br /> </div> <div id="postlikes"> <%= link_to_remote 'Like', :url => {:controller => 'posts', :action => 'like_post', :id => post.id}%> <%= post.like %> </div> code for _postlikes partial: <div id="postlikes"> <%= link_to_remote 'Like', :url => {:controller => 'posts', :action => 'like_post', :id => @post.id}%> <%= @post.like %> </div> </div> like_post.rjs code: page.replace_html "postlikes", :partial => "postlikes", :object => @post page.visual_effect :highlight, "postlikes", :duration => 3 So this all works properly for the first "postcontent" div. But this is an index of posts, so if I wanted to updated the second "postcontent" div on the page, it will still replace the html of the first. I understand the problem, I just don't know how to fix it :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Learning C, would appreciate input on why this solution works.

    - by Keifer
    This is literally the first thing I've ever written in C, so please feel free to point out all it's flaws. :) My issue, however is this: if I write the program the way I feel is cleanest, I get a broken program: #include <sys/queue.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* Removed prototypes and non related code for brevity */ int main() { char *cmd = NULL; unsigned int acct = 0; int amount = 0; int done = 0; while (done==0) { scanf ("%s %u %i", cmd, &acct, &amount); if (strcmp (cmd, "exit") == 0) done = 1; else if ((strcmp (cmd, "dep") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "deb") == 0)) debit (acct, amount); else if ((strcmp (cmd, "wd") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "cred") == 0)) credit (acct, amount); else if (strcmp (cmd, "fee") == 0) service_fee(acct, amount); else printf("Invalid input!\n"); } return(0); } void credit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void debit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void service_fee(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } As it stands, the above generates no errors at compile, but gives me a segfault when ran. I can fix this by changing the program to pass cmd by reference when calling scanf and strcmp. The segfault goes away and is replaced by warnings for each use of strcmp at compile time. Despite the warnings, the affected code works. warning: passing arg 1 of 'strcmp' from incompatible pointer type As an added bonus, modifying the scanf and strcmp calls allows the program to progress far enough to execute return(0), at which point the thing crashes with an Abort trap. If I swap out return(0) for exit(0) then everything works as expected. This leaves me with two questions: why was the original program wrong? How can I fix it better than I have? The bit about needing to use exit instead of return has me especially baffled.

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  • Getting level values from PCM raw data using Core Audio

    - by John
    I am trying to extract level data from a PCM audio file using core audio. I have gotten as far as (I believe) getting the raw data into a byte array (UInt8) but it is 16 bit PCM data and I am having trouble reading the data out. The input is from the iPhone microphone, which I have set as: [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:kAudioFormatLinearPCM] forKey:AVFormatIDKey]; [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:44100.0] forKey:AVSampleRateKey]; [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:1] forKey:AVNumberOfChannelsKey]; [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:16] forKey:AVLinearPCMBitDepthKey]; [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithBool:NO] forKey:AVLinearPCMIsBigEndianKey]; [recordSetting setValue:[NSNumber numberWithBool:NO] forKey:AVLinearPCMIsFloatKey]; which is obviously 16 bits. I am then trying to just print out a few values to see if they look reasonable for debug purposes below, and they do not look reasonable (many 0's). ExtAudioFileRef inputFile = NULL; ExtAudioFileOpenURL(track.location, &inputFile); AudioStreamBasicDescription inputFileFormat; UInt32 dataSize = (UInt32)sizeof(inputFileFormat); ExtAudioFileGetProperty(inputFile, kExtAudioFileProperty_FileDataFormat, &dataSize, &inputFileFormat); UInt8 *buffer = malloc(BUFFER_SIZE); AudioBufferList bufferList; bufferList.mNumberBuffers = 1; bufferList.mBuffers[0].mNumberChannels = 1; bufferList.mBuffers[0].mData = buffer; //pointer to buffer of audio data bufferList.mBuffers[0].mDataByteSize = BUFFER_SIZE; //number of bytes in the buffer while(true) { UInt32 frameCount = (bufferList.mBuffers[0].mDataByteSize / inputFileFormat.mBytesPerFrame); // Read a chunk of input OSStatus status = ExtAudioFileRead(inputFile, &frameCount, &bufferList); // If no frames were returned, conversion is finished if(0 == frameCount) break; NSLog(@"---"); int16_t *bufferl = &buffer; for(int i=0;i<100;i++){ //const int16_t *bufferl = bufferl[i]; NSLog(@"%d",bufferl[i]); } } Not sure what I am doing wrong, I think it has to do with reading the byte array. Sorry for the long code post...

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  • jQuery validation plugin addMethod firing incorrectly

    - by LoganEtherton
    I must be missing something obvious, but everything that I've tried for this is leaving me empty handed, so I'm a bit puzzled. I'm attempting to use the jQuery validation plugin with custom validation methods, but it seems to be hit or miss. It seems that I am able to successfully add rules to a certain extent, but some of the methods are not applied. Or the specified method is not applied, and the incorrect method is instead applied. So, for example, this works without a hitch: $.validator.addMethod("emailValidation", function(value, element) { return /^((([a-z]|\d|[!#\$%&'\*\+\-\/=\?\^_`{\|}~]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])+(\.([a-z]|\d|[!#\$%&'\*\+\-\/=\?\^_`{\|}~]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])+)*)|((\x22)((((\x20|\x09)*(\x0d\x0a))?(\x20|\x09)+)?(([\x01-\x08\x0b\x0c\x0e-\x1f\x7f]|\x21|[\x23-\x5b]|[\x5d-\x7e]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(\\([\x01-\x09\x0b\x0c\x0d-\x7f]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF]))))*(((\x20|\x09)*(\x0d\x0a))?(\x20|\x09)+)?(\x22)))@((([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])([a-z]|\d|-|\.|_|~|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])*([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])))\.)+(([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])([a-z]|\d|-|\.|_|~|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])*([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])))\.?$/.test(value); }, "Please enter a valid email address." ); $.validator.addMethod("password", function(value, element) { return /[^\s]{6,25}/.test(value); }, "Please enter a password between 6 and 25 characters long." ); ... $(function(){ $("#registrationForm").validate({ rules: { email: { required: true, emailValidation: true }, password: { required: true, password: true }, } }); }); Both the password validation and email validation work. But then I add, in the same exact manner, a validation test for names. So, right below where the password method ends, I add: $.validator.addMethod("name", function(value, element) { return /[^\s]{6,25}/.test(value); }, "Please enter a valid name." ); Which turns the validate call into: $(function(){ $("#registrationForm").validate({ rules: { email: { required: true, emailValidation: true }, password: { required: true, password: true }, studentFirstName: { name: true } } }); }); And suddenly, everything is only validating for names. Both the email and password fields now validate using the name method, as does the name field. This is confusing! I've added console.log calls to all methods, and indeed, it's not that one is being called after the other - the only one being called is name. I've checked and double checked that the element selection is good. I've checked that everything is groovy with the methods themselves. Any ideas?

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