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  • Setup for games animation: How do I know JFrame is finished setting itself up?

    - by Jokkel
    I'm using javax.swing.JFrame to draw game animations using double buffer strategy. First, I set up the frame. JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setVisible(true); Now, I draw an object (let it be a circle, doesn't matter) like this. frame.createBufferStrategy(2); bufferStrategy = frame.getBufferStrategy(); Graphics g = bufferStrategy.getDrawGraphics(); circle.draw(g); bufferStrategy.show(); The problem is that the frame is not always fully set-up when the drawing takes place. Seems like JFrame needs up to three steps in resizing itself, until it reaches it's final size. That makes the drawing slide out of frame or hinders it to appear completely from time to time. I already managed to delay things using SwingUtilities.invokeLater(). While this improved the result, there are still times when the drawing slides away / looks prematurely draw. Any idea / strategy? Thanks in advance. EDIT: Ok thanks so far. I didn't mention that I write a little Pong game in the first place. Sorry for the confusion What I actually looked for was the right setup for accelerated game animations done in Java. While reading through the suggestions I found my question answered (though indirectly) here and this example made things clear for me. A resume for this might be that for animating game graphics in Java, the first step is to get rid of the GUI logic overhead.

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  • problem with "select new Object ... join ... where"

    - by jacob
    Hi, I'm having a problem with an HQL query Three classes ClassOne is my BusinessObject public class ClassOne { private int id; private int status; private Set<ClassTwo> classTwos; + other fields/getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassTwo is referenced in a set of ClassOne and is kind of the history of an object of ClassOne public class ClassTwo { private int id; private int oldStatus; private int newStatus; private String message; //+ getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassThree is my DTO/VO with just one classTwo (not the whole history) public class ClassThree { private int id; private int status; private ClassTwo classTwo; public ClassThree(int pId, int pStatus, ClassTwo pClassTwo) { id=pId; status=pStatus; classTwo=pClassTwo; } //+ getters/setters etc } Now I'd like to create an HQL query like this: I'd like to get all objects of ClassThree with a certain status and if it exists the newest ClassTwo with a certain newStatus. For example: I'd like to get all the DTOs (ClassThree) of ClassOne whose status is now 1, but earlier in their history it has been 2 and I'd like to have the latest ClassTwo object which has 2 as newStatus. SELECT new ClassThree(c1.id, c1.status, c2) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT JOIN c1.classtwos c2 (...) and (...) is where I don't know what to do, I'm not even sure if it's a join / join fetch Looked around and tried quite a lot already, but no clue. Especially with the join fetch I get some Hibernate errors like org.hibernate.QueryException: query specified join fetching, but the owner of the fetched association was not present in the select list. Fetching the BusinessObject like that is no problem SELECT distinct(c1) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT OUTER JOIN FETCH c1.classtwos c2 and I get the ClassTwos as my field. Thanks in advance, Jacob P.S.: One thing might be important, ClassTwo has no reference to ClassOne!!

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  • MEF: Satisfy part on an Export using and Export from the composed part.

    - by Pop Catalin
    Hi, I have the following scenario in Silverlight 4: I have a notifications service Snippet [InheritedExport] public interface INotificationsService : IObservable<ReceivedNotification> { void IssueNotifications(IEnumerable<ClientIssuedNotification> notifications); } and and implementation of this service Snippet [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class ClientNotificationService : INotificationsService { [Import] IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } ... } How can I say to MEF that the Plugin property of the ClientNotificationService must be provided by the importing class that imports the INotificationsService. For example: Snippet public class Client { [Export] IPlugin Current { get; set; } [Import] INotificationService NotificationService; } How can I say that I want MEF to satisfy the ClientNotificationService.Plugin part with the exported IPlugin by the Client class. Basically I want the NotificationService, to receive a Unique ID provided by the importing class, whenever it is created and composed to a new class, or if there's and alternative method, like using meta data to do this I'd appreciate any insights. I've been struggling with this for a while. Thanks

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  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data. [Newbie]

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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  • negative values in integer programming model

    - by Lucia
    I'm new at using the glpk tool, and after writing a model for certain integer problem and running the solver (glpsol) i get negative values in some constraint that shouldn't be negative at all: No.Row name Activity Lower bound Upper bound 8 act[1] 0 -0 9 act[2] -3 -0 10 act[2] -2 -0 That constraint is defined like this: act{j in J}: sum{i in I} d[i,j] <= y[j]*m; where the sets and variables used are like this: param m, integer, 0; param n, integer, 0; set I := 1..m; set J := 1..n; var y{j in J}, binary; As the upper bound is negative, i think the problem may be in the y[j]*m parte, of the right side of the inequality.. perhaps something with the multiplication of binarys? or that the j in that side of the constrait is undefined? i dont know... i would be greatly grateful if someone can help me with this! :) and excuse for my bad english thanks in advance!

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  • C++ STL question related to insert iterators and sets

    - by rshepherd
    #include #include #include #include using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In typical STL style the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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  • select dropdown option by value using jquery

    - by user1765862
    I have select following html structure <select id="mainMenu" data-mini="true" name="select-choice-min"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> <option value="4">4</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="6">6</option> </select> on page load I want initially set option with value 5 so I tried (but nothing changed) $(document).ready(function () { $('#mainMenu option').eq(5).prop('selected', true); }) I'm using jquery 1.8.3 and jqueyr mobile since this is mobile website <script src="/Scripts/jquery-1.8.3.js"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.mobile-1.4.2.js"></script> UPDATE: I just realize that every code from posted answers works (as well as mine), #mainMenu option value is set to desired value (5) but it's text doesnt change (in any of this scenarios). Is this normal and is there workarround for this. I tried $("mainMenu").text("5");

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  • Netbeans, JPA Entity Beans in seperate projects. Unknown entity bean class

    - by Stu
    I am working in Netbeans and have my entity beans and web services in separate projects. I include the entity beans in the web services project however the ApplicaitonConfig.java file keeps getting over written and removing the entries I make for the entity beans in the associated jar file. My question is: is it required to have both the EntityBeans and the WebServices share the same project/jar file? If not what is the appropriate way to include the entity beans which are in the jar file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="2.1" xmlns="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_1.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="jdbc/emrPool" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/emrPool</jta-data-source> <exclude-unlisted-classes>false</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="none"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Based on Melc's input i verified that that the transaction type is set to JTA and the jta-data-source is set to the value for the Glassfish JDBC Resource. Unfortunately the problem still persists. I have opened the WAR file and validated that the EntityBean.jar file is the latest version and is located in the WEB-INF/lib directory of the War file. I think it is tied to the fact that the entities are not being "registered" with the entity manager. However i do not know why they are not being registered.

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • What happens if I just add a second IP to a domain?

    - by tntu
    We have two servers that are in constant sync. We have two applications that connect to them. Each app to different server. We devised a new version of those apps that will read a dns entry and get a list of IP addresses and try them in order. Now problem is old apps. We have noticed that some ppl still use the old ones even if we have released the new. If we were to add two IP's to each domain would they receive the IP's in the order we set them or random? Either way it will still work for us but I'm just curious. If first server goes offline will the client application try the other? To be noted for old version: Interruption does not affect in any way the continuation once connection is reestablished. Each communication is independent of previous ones. Applications connect at set intervals of time anywhere between 5 seconds to 1 hour. Connection is done simply using an http post to the URL in question.

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  • jQuery UI Dialog Issue With IE

    - by Dan Appleyard
    I am using the new jQuery 1.3.2 and jQuery-ui-1.7 libraries along with the UI Dialog. I have a div tag with several form elements (textbox, checkbox, etc.) in it. Upon page load, jQuery shows the div as a dialog. This works absolutely fine in FF, but in IE, the height of the div is wrong. It is just showing the title bar a bit of the content. I explicitly set the height when creating the div. If I set the height option after opening the dialog, the height is corrected, but the content is blank (shows the top third of a textbox). If I allow the dialog to be resizable, if you resize it in IE it works fine, but I don't want to force IE users to resize just to see the contents. Any ideas? Here is the code I use to create the dialog: $('#dialogDiv').dialog({ bgiframe: true, height: 400, width: 620, modal: true, draggable: true, resizable: false, close: function(event, ui) { if($('#agree').val() != '1') location.href = 'somepage.html'; } });

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  • Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

    - by Luca Matteis
    Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

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  • C# generics with MVVM, pulling the T out of <T>

    - by bufferz
    My Model is a generic class that contains a (for example) Value property which can be int, float, string, bool, etc. So naturally this class is represented something like Model<T>. For the sake of collections Model<T> implements the interface IModel, although IModel is itself empty of any content. My ViewModel contains and instance of Model<T> and it is passed in through ViewModel's constructor. I still want to know what T is in ViewModel, so when I expose Model to the View I know the datatype of Model's buried Value property. The class for ViewModel ends up looking like the following: class ViewModel<T> { private Model<T> _model; public ViewModel(Model<T> model) { ....blah.... } public T ModelsValue {get; set; } } This works fine, but is limited. So now I need to expose a collection of IModels with varying Ts to my View, so I'm trying to set up an ObservableCollection of new ViewModel<T>s to a changing list of IModels. The problem is, I can't figure out how to get T from Model<T> from IModel to construct ViewModel<T>(Model<T>) at runtime. In the VS2010 debugger I can mouseover any IModel object and see its full Model<int> for example at runtime so I know the data is in there. Any ideas?

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  • Why the input and the select do not get the same width?

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    I have a table with two rows. The first row contains an input and the second row contains a select. Even though I have set their widths to be 100%, the select box is a few pixels smaller than the input. Any ideas why is this so and how can I set their widths to be equal to each other and as big as possible (e.g. %100) in a way that works across all (A-grade) browsers? <table width="100%" style="margin-top: 5px;"> <tr> <td width="35"><label for="desc">Description</label></td> <td> <input type="text" style="width: 100%;" name="desc" id="desc" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="35"><label for="group">Group</label></td> <td> <select id="group" name="group" style="width: 100%; line-height: 17px;"> <option value="val">name</option> </select> </td> </tr> </table>

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  • Quickest way to compare a buch of array or list of values.

    - by zapping
    Can you please let me know on the quickest and efficient way to compare a large set of values. Its like there are a list of parent codes(string) and each code has a series of child values(string). The child lists have to be compared with each other and find out duplicates and count how many times they repeat. code1(code1_value1, code1_value2, code3_value3, ..., code1_valueN); code2(code2_value1, code1_value2, code2_value3, ..., code2_valueN); code3(code2_value1, code3_value2, code3_value3, ..., code3_valueN); . . . codeN(codeN_value1, codeN_value2, codeN_value3, ..., codeN_valueN); The lists are huge say like there are 100 parent codes and each has about 250 values in them. There will not be duplicates within a code list. Doing it in java and the solution i could figure out is. Store the values of first set of code in as codeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount). The count initialized to 0. Then compare the rest of the values with this. If its in the map then increment the count otherwise append it to the map. The downfall of this is to get the duplicates. Another iteration needs to be performed on a very large list. An alternative is to maintain another hashmap for duplicates like duplicateCodeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount) and change the initial hashmap to codeMap.put(codeValue, codeValue). Speed is what is requirement. Hope one of you can help me with it.

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  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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  • How do I manage multiple development branches in GIT?

    - by Ian
    I have 5 branches of one system - lets call them master, London, Birmingham, Manchester and demo. These differ in only a configuration file and each has its own set of graphics files. When I do some development, I create a temp branch from master, called after the feature, and work on that. When ready to merge I checkout master, and git merge feature to bring in my work. That appears to work just fine. Now I need to get my changes into the other Branches, without losing the differences between then that are there already. How can I do that? I have been having no end of problems with Birmingham geting London's graphics, and with conflicts within the configuration file. When the branch is finally correct, I push it up to a depot, and pull each Branch down to a linux box for final testing, From there the release into production is using rsync (set to ignore the .git repository itself). This phase works just fine also. I am the only developer at the moment, but I need to get the process solid before inviting assistance :)

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  • Further filter SQL results

    - by eric
    I've got a query that returns a proper result set, using SQL 2005. It is as follows: select case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end as [Quarter], bugtypes.bugtypename, count(bug.bugid) as [Total] from bug left outer join bugtypes on bug.crntbugtypeid = bugtypes.bugtypeid and bug.projectid = bugtypes.projectid where (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (-1000000031,-1000000045) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) or (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (select memberid from groupmembers where projectid = 44 and groupid in (87,88)) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) group by case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end, bugtypes.bugtypename order by 1,3 desc It produces a nicely grouped list of years and quarters, an associated descriptor, and a count of incidents in descending count order. What I'd like to do is further filter this so it shows only the 10 most submitted incidents per quarter. What I'm struggling with is how to take this result set and achieve that.

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  • How to send java.util.logging to log4j?

    - by matt b
    I have an existing application which does all of its logging against log4j. We use a number of other libraries that either also use log4j, or log against Commons Logging, which ends up using log4j under the covers in our environment. One of our dependencies even logs against slf4j, which also works fine since it eventually delegates to log4j as well. Now, I'd like to add ehcache to this application for some caching needs. Previous versions of ehcache used commons-logging, which would have worked perfectly in this scenario, but as of version 1.6-beta1 they have removed the dependency on commons-logging and replaced it with java.util.logging instead. Not really being familiar with the built-in JDK logging available with java.util.logging, is there an easy way to have any log messages sent to JUL logged against log4j, so I can use my existing configuration and set up for any logging coming from ehcache? Looking at the javadocs for JUL, it looks like I could set up a bunch of environment variables to change which LogManager implementation is used, and perhaps use that to wrap log4j Loggers in the JUL Logger class. Is this the correct approach? Kind of ironic that a library's use of built-in JDK logging would cause such a headache when (most of) the rest of the world is using 3rd party libraries instead.

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  • Sample twitter App

    - by Jack
    I am now running my code on a web hosting service http://xtreemhost.com/ <?php function updateTwitter($status) { $username = 'xxxxxx'; $password = 'xxxx'; $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); $responseInfo=array(); $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following error now Curl error: Couldn't resolve host 'api.twitter.com' Error: 0 Please somebody solve my problem

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  • How to tell if leaving iOS app entered foreground from fast-app switching or manually?

    - by JPK
    Is there a way to tell if an iOS app enters the foreground from fast-app switching or manually? I need to know by the time applicationWillEnterForeground is called, so some specific code can be executed (or not executed) depending on the condition in which the app entered the foreground. EDIT: It turned out that this was more of a design issue for me. I moved my code to applicationDidBecomeActive. I also added a BOOL property to the appDelegate called fastAppSwitching (probably the wrong name for it). I set this to YES in application:handleOpenURL and application:openURL:sourceApplication:annotation. Then I added the following code to application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions: if (launchOptions) { self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } else { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } In applicationDidBecomeActive, I used the following code: if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; //stop, don't go any further } else { ... } EDIT2: MaxGabriel makes a good point below: "Just a warning to others taking the solution described here, applicationDidBecomeActive: is called when the user e.g. ignores a phone call or text message, unlike applicationWillEnterForeground". This is actually also true for in-app purchases and Facebook in-app authorization (new in iOS 6). So, with some further testing, this is the current solution: Add a new Bool called passedThroughWillEnterForeground. In applicationWillResignActive: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationDidEnterBackground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationWillEnterForeground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = YES; In applicationDidBecomeActive: if (passedThroughWillEnterForeground) { //we are NOT returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog, etc //do nothing with this BOOL - just reset it self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; } else { //we ARE returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog - IE //This is the same as fast-app switching in our book, so let's keep it simple and use this to set that self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } else { ... } EDIT3: I think we also need a bool to tell if app was launched from terminated.

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  • Troubleshooting multiple GET variables In PHP

    - by V413HAV
    This may be a very simple question but I don't what's the wrong thing am doing here... To explain you clearly, I've set a real simple example below: <ul> <li><a href="test.php?link1=true">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link2=true">Link 2</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link3=true">Link 3</a></li> </ul> <?php if(isset($_GET['link1'])) { if(($_GET['link1']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 1'; } } if(isset($_GET['link2'])) { if(($_GET['link2']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 2'; } } if(isset($_GET['link3'])) { if(($_GET['link3']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 3'; } } ?> This is a test.php page, here I've set 3 different arguments for $_GET, and show contents accordingly, now everything works perfect, the only thing am not understanding is how to block this kind of url say if user clicks on link 1 the url will be : http://localhost/test.php?link1=true And the Output of this url is This is Link 1 Now if I change this url to : http://localhost/test.php?link3=true&link2=true&link1=true And the Output what I get is This Is Link 1This Is Link 2This Is Link 3 Now this is ok here, but it's very annoying if someone types this and see's forms one below the other, any way I can stop this tampering?

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  • Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

    - by Knarf Navillus
    Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

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  • Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

    - by Rob
    I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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