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• Changing a Select dropdown with a jquery ui slider

  - by Chris J. Lee

  Trying to set a select dropdown with a slider. You move the jquery ui slider and then it will change the selection of the other two dropdowns. is there a current method in jquery that would set these options? Current dropdown: <select id="alert-options-frequency-opts"> <option value=""></option> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> <option value="4">4</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="6">6</option> <option value="7">7</option> <option value="8">8</option> <option value="9">9</option> <option value="10">10</option> </select>

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• Ignore all folders with a certain name in SVN (subversion), how to?

  - by Roeland

  I am fairly new to Subversion and was wondering how exactly to ignore all folders by a specific name. From what I have read, I think I need to use the svn:ignore function, but I have no clue on how to actually do this. Some places mention a config file.. some say command prompt. I have my subversion repo set up on a windows 2008 server. I tried to go to command prompt and type svn:ignore name but that didnt work. The tutorial I used to set up my repo (with apache 2.2) had me create an etc folder in c:/. There I have subversion.conf, svn-acl and svn-auth-file. My subversion.conf file includes this: <Location /btp> DAV svn SVNPath C:/Files/Work/Repositories/btp AuthType Basic AuthName "By The Pixel Repo" AuthUserFile c:/etc/svn-auth-file Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile c:/etc/svn-acl </Location> The client I use for my development machines is tortoisesvn. Im a bit of a noob so any help is appreciated it! Thanks.

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• NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

  - by CoderRoller

  Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

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• jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

  - by Jugi84

  I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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• Why would dynamically changing the stroke type of a GestureOverlayView cause unusual behaviour?

  - by Rob Kent

  I recently introduced multi-stroke gestures into my application. This is a preference so I set the StrokeType dynamically in Activity.OnCreate. What I have discovered is that if you change the StrokeType so that it is different to the setting in the layout file, it changes the behaviour of the GestureOverlayView in the following way. The normal behaviour is that you draw a gesture and it stays on the screen after it is drawn. When you change the stroke type dynamically however, any gesture drawn on the screen disappears immediately after the OnGestureEnded event has fired. I reloaded the sample GesturesBuilder application and confirmed it has the same problem if you add the second line shown here: GestureOverlayView overlay = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures_overlay); overlay.setGestureStrokeType(GestureOverlayView.GESTURE_STROKE_TYPE_SINGLE); overlay.addOnGestureListener(new GesturesProcessor()); } The default in the layout is MULTIPLE but changing it to single changes the behaviour. If you keep the above line but set it to what it already is, the behaviour is not affected. Is this a bug in the Android gestures library and does anyone know a workaround? Note that this is on an HTC Magic so it could also be a handset issue.

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• Help me convert .NET 1.1 Xml validation code to .NET 2.0 please.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  It would be fantastic if you could help me rid of these warnings below. I have not been able to find a good document. Since the warnings are concentrated in just the private void ValidateConfiguration( XmlNode section ) section, hopefully this is not terribly hard to answer, if you have encountered this before. Thanks! 'System.Configuration.ConfigurationException.ConfigurationException(string)' is obsolete: 'This class is obsolete, to create a new exception create a System.Configuration!System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException' 'System.Xml.XmlValidatingReader' is obsolete: 'Use XmlReader created by XmlReader.Create() method using appropriate XmlReaderSettings instead. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202' private void ValidateConfiguration( XmlNode section ) { // throw if there is no configuration node. if( null == section ) { throw new ConfigurationException("The configuration section passed within the ... class was null ... there must be a configuration file defined.", section ); } //Validate the document using a schema XmlValidatingReader vreader = new XmlValidatingReader( new XmlTextReader( new StringReader( section.OuterXml ) ) ); // open stream on Resources; the XSD is set as an "embedded resource" so Resource can open a stream on it using (Stream xsdFile = XYZ.GetStream("ABC.xsd")) using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(xsdFile)) { vreader.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(ValidationCallBack); vreader.Schemas.Add(XmlSchema.Read(new XmlTextReader(sr), null)); vreader.ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema; // Validate the document while (vreader.Read()) { } if (!_isValidDocument) { _schemaErrors = _sb.ToString(); throw new ConfigurationException("XML Document not valid"); } } } // Does not cause warnings. private void ValidationCallBack( object sender, ValidationEventArgs args ) { // check what KIND of problem the schema validation reader has; // on FX 1.0, it gives a warning for "<xs:any...skip" sections. Don't worry about those, only set validation false // for real errors if( args.Severity == XmlSeverityType.Error ) { _isValidDocument = false; _sb.Append( args.Message + Environment.NewLine ); } }

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• C# generics with MVVM, pulling the T out of <T>

  - by bufferz

  My Model is a generic class that contains a (for example) Value property which can be int, float, string, bool, etc. So naturally this class is represented something like Model<T>. For the sake of collections Model<T> implements the interface IModel, although IModel is itself empty of any content. My ViewModel contains and instance of Model<T> and it is passed in through ViewModel's constructor. I still want to know what T is in ViewModel, so when I expose Model to the View I know the datatype of Model's buried Value property. The class for ViewModel ends up looking like the following: class ViewModel<T> { private Model<T> _model; public ViewModel(Model<T> model) { ....blah.... } public T ModelsValue {get; set; } } This works fine, but is limited. So now I need to expose a collection of IModels with varying Ts to my View, so I'm trying to set up an ObservableCollection of new ViewModel<T>s to a changing list of IModels. The problem is, I can't figure out how to get T from Model<T> from IModel to construct ViewModel<T>(Model<T>) at runtime. In the VS2010 debugger I can mouseover any IModel object and see its full Model<int> for example at runtime so I know the data is in there. Any ideas?

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• MEF: Satisfy part on an Export using and Export from the composed part.

  - by Pop Catalin

  Hi, I have the following scenario in Silverlight 4: I have a notifications service Snippet [InheritedExport] public interface INotificationsService : IObservable<ReceivedNotification> { void IssueNotifications(IEnumerable<ClientIssuedNotification> notifications); } and and implementation of this service Snippet [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class ClientNotificationService : INotificationsService { [Import] IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } ... } How can I say to MEF that the Plugin property of the ClientNotificationService must be provided by the importing class that imports the INotificationsService. For example: Snippet public class Client { [Export] IPlugin Current { get; set; } [Import] INotificationService NotificationService; } How can I say that I want MEF to satisfy the ClientNotificationService.Plugin part with the exported IPlugin by the Client class. Basically I want the NotificationService, to receive a Unique ID provided by the importing class, whenever it is created and composed to a new class, or if there's and alternative method, like using meta data to do this I'd appreciate any insights. I've been struggling with this for a while. Thanks

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• How do I manage multiple development branches in GIT?

  - by Ian

  I have 5 branches of one system - lets call them master, London, Birmingham, Manchester and demo. These differ in only a configuration file and each has its own set of graphics files. When I do some development, I create a temp branch from master, called after the feature, and work on that. When ready to merge I checkout master, and git merge feature to bring in my work. That appears to work just fine. Now I need to get my changes into the other Branches, without losing the differences between then that are there already. How can I do that? I have been having no end of problems with Birmingham geting London's graphics, and with conflicts within the configuration file. When the branch is finally correct, I push it up to a depot, and pull each Branch down to a linux box for final testing, From there the release into production is using rsync (set to ignore the .git repository itself). This phase works just fine also. I am the only developer at the moment, but I need to get the process solid before inviting assistance :)

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• Determine if a directory is empty, delete it if it is and delete that directroy name from a separate list. C-shell

  - by Kg123

  I have a directory named STA. Within that directory are about 600 other directories that have the format hh:mm:ss (for example 00:01:34). Within each of these sub-directories should be three files. I also have a file, 'waveformlist', (contained within STA) which is a list of all of these sub-directories i.e.: 00:01:34 00:02:35 etc. A lot of the sub-directories do not contain these three files and are instead empty. I want to run a C-shell script to go through every sub directory and check if it is empty. If it is empty I want to delete that sub directory from the main directory STA, and also remove that sub-directory name from the list 'waveformlist'. Below is my script so far. It does not recognize when the sub-directory is empty or not and does not like the rm $dir line. Also, I do not know how to go and remove the sub-directory name from 'waveformlist'. #!/bin/csh echo "Enter name of station folder to apply filter to as 'STA' e.g. APZ:" set ans = $< cd $ans set c=0 foreach dir (*:*) if ("${c}" == 0) then echo "Empty directory:" $dir rm $dir else echo ${dir} "has files" endif end I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you.

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• mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

  - by Mala

  I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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• Error with custom Class definition in protocol

  - by Greg

  I'm trying to set up a custom delegate protocol and am getting a strange error that I don't understand. I wonder if someone could point out what I'm doing wrong here (I'm still new to Ob-C and protocol use)... The situation is that I've built my own URLLoader class to manage loading and parsing data from the internet. I'm now trying to set up a protocol for delegates to implement that will respond to the URLLoader's events. So, below is my protocol... #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "URLLoader.h" /** * Protocol for delegates that will respond to a load. */ @protocol URLLoadResponder <NSObject> - (void)loadDidComplete:(URLLoader *)loader; - (void)loadDidFail:(URLLoader *)loader withError:(NSString *)error; @end However, I'm getting the following error for both method signatures: Expected ')' before 'URLLoader' I feel like I must be overlooking something small and silly. Any help folks could offer would be greatly appreciated! Whoops ... it was pointed out that I should include URLLoader.h. Here it is: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "URLLoadResponder.h" /** * URLLoader inferface. */ @interface URLLoader : NSObject { NSString *name; NSString *loadedData; NSMutableData *responseData; NSObject *delegate; BOOL _isLoaded; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *loadedData; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *delegate; - (void)loadFromURL:(NSString *)url; - (void)addCompleteListener:(id)observer selector:(SEL)sel; - (void)removeCompleteListener:(id)observer; - (void)parseLoadedData:(NSString *)data; - (void)complete; - (void)close; - (BOOL)isLoaded; + (NSURL *)makeUrlWithString:(NSString *)url; + (URLLoader *)initWithName:(NSString *)name; @end

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• CakePHP dropping session between pages

  - by DavidYell

  Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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• Sample twitter App

  - by Jack

  I am now running my code on a web hosting service http://xtreemhost.com/ <?php function updateTwitter($status) { $username = 'xxxxxx'; $password = 'xxxx'; $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); $responseInfo=array(); $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following error now Curl error: Couldn't resolve host 'api.twitter.com' Error: 0 Please somebody solve my problem

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• Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data. [Newbie]

  - by kodai

  Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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• Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

  - by Luca Matteis

  Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

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• Help me understand making maven project w/ non-maven jar dependencies usable by others

  - by deet

  Hi, I'm in the process of learning maven (and java packaging & distribution) with a new oss project I'm making as practice. Here's my situation, all java of course: My main project is ProjectA, maven-based in a github repository. I have also created one utility project, maven-based, in github: ProjectB. ProjectA depends on a project I have heavily modified that originally was from a google-code ant-based repository, ProjectC. So, how do I set up the build for ProjectA such that someone can download ProjectA.jar and use it without needing to install jars for ProjectB and ProjectC, and also how do I set up the build such that someone could check out ProjectA and run only 'mvn package' for a full compile? (Additionally, what should I do with my modified version of ProjectC? include the class files directly into ProjectA, or fork the project into something that could then be used by as a maven dependency?) I've been reading around, links such as this SO question and this SO question, but I'm unclear how those relate to my particular circumstance. So, any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• MySQL Query - WHERE and IF?

  - by Prash

  I'm not quite sure how to right this query. Basically, I'm going to have a table with two columns (OS and country_code) - more columns too, but those are the conditional ones. These will be either set to 0 for all, or specific ones, separated by commas. Now, what I'm trying achieve is pull data from the table if the OS and country_code = 0, or if they contain matching data (separated by commas). Then, I have a column for time. I want to select rows where the time is GREATER than the time column, unless the column time_t is set to false, in which case this shouldn't matter. I hope I explained it right? This is what I kind of have so far: $get = $db->prepare("SELECT * FROM commands WHERE country_code = 0 OR country_code LIKE :country_code AND OS = 0 OR OS LIKE :OS AND IF (time_t = 1, expiry > NOW()) "); $get->execute(array( ':country_code' => "%{$data['country_code']}%", ':OS' => "%{$data['OS']}%" ));

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• Sync video play over network

  - by Nemesis

  Hi, I have made a media player that plays basically anything that's scheduled to it via a text file. The player can also play the exact same clip on multiple machines(PC's). The problem is the syncing. The same video starts playing on each of the machines, but they are out by about 400ms, which looks crap and if there's sound it's even worse. What I do at the moment is: One machine is set up as the master and all other machines are set up as slaves. The master decides what item will be played. It waits for a message from each of the slaves, once all slaves are connected (or after the timeout), it broadcasts the item id of the file that needs to be played. All machines then start playing that file. What I also tried: I thought that the file loading time might be the major driving factor in the sync mismatch, so I chankged the code to do the following. The master still decides what file to play. It waits for the connect message from each slave (or timeout) and transmits the item id of the file to play. All machines start playing that file but pauses it immediately. The master then again waits for a ready message from each of the slaves. As soon as all slaves responded the master sends a play message to all slaves. All machines then continue the file. This unfortunately did not improve the problem. I am now pretty sure the sync mismatch is due to network delay. How can I compensate for this? Or maybe determine the delay to each slave? All network comms are done with winsock. Any thoughts or ideas is much appreciated.

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• Newbie - eclipse workflow (PHP development)

  - by engil

  Hi all - this is a bit of a newbie question but hoping I can get some guidance. I've been playing around with Eclipse for a couple months yet I'm still not completely comfortable with my setup and it seems like every time I install it to a new system I end up with different results. What I'm hoping to achieve is (I think) fairly standard. In my environment I'd like SVN (currently using Subclipse), FTP support (currently using Aptana plugin), debugging (going to use XDebug) and all the usual bells and whistles of development (code completion, refactoring, etc.) My biggest current issue is how to set up my environment to support both a 'development' and 'production' server. Optimally I would be able to work directly against the dev server (Eclipse on my Vista desktop against the VM Ubuntu dev server) and then push to production server (shared hosting). I'd prefer to work directly against the dev server (with no local project files, just using the Connections provided by Aptana) but I'm guessing this won't allow for code-completoin or all the other bells and whistles provided for development. Any thoughts? Kind of an open ended question, but maybe this could be an opportunity for some of you with a great deal of experience using Eclipse to describe your setups so people like me can get some insight into good ways to get set up.

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• Further filter SQL results

  - by eric

  I've got a query that returns a proper result set, using SQL 2005. It is as follows: select case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end as [Quarter], bugtypes.bugtypename, count(bug.bugid) as [Total] from bug left outer join bugtypes on bug.crntbugtypeid = bugtypes.bugtypeid and bug.projectid = bugtypes.projectid where (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (-1000000031,-1000000045) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) or (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (select memberid from groupmembers where projectid = 44 and groupid in (87,88)) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) group by case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end, bugtypes.bugtypename order by 1,3 desc It produces a nicely grouped list of years and quarters, an associated descriptor, and a count of incidents in descending count order. What I'd like to do is further filter this so it shows only the 10 most submitted incidents per quarter. What I'm struggling with is how to take this result set and achieve that.

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• DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

  - by frozen

  I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

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• Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

  - by Jason

  I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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• Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

  - by Knarf Navillus

  Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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• Unit test approach for generic classes/methods

  - by Greg

  Hi, What's the recommended way to cover off unit testing of generic classes/methods? For example (referring to my example code below). Would it be a case of have 2 or 3 times the tests to cover testing the methods with a few different types of TKey, TNode classes? Or is just one class enough? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>>(); Relationships = new List<RelationshipBase<TKey>>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(NodeBase<TKey> parent, NodeBase<TKey> child) { . . .

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