Search Results

Search found 87926 results on 3518 pages for 'deft code'.

Page 825/3518 | < Previous Page | 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832  | Next Page >

  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

    Read the article

  • iTextSharp Conversion from Table to pdfPTable

    - by Al.
    I have an old ASP.NET project originally done in ASP.NET 1.1 w/ iText.NET and converted to .NET 2.0 and iTextSharp 4.1.6.0. It uses lots of Table (I'm assuming pdfptable wasn't an option at the time it was created.) I am trying to convert this code to use the latest iTextSharp 5.0.0 dll and now see Table and cell have been removed. I started converting it anyway and soon found there is no equivalent to a lot of the functionality that Table offered. Mainly AddCell no longer allows a col,row setting. There are literally thousands of these calls in this code and the posibility of changing it to generate linearly row by row looks hopeless at the moment. The current code looks something like: Dim myTable As New Table(NumReq + 2, IngDS.Tables(0).Rows.Count + 3) myTable.SetWidths(Width) myTable.Width = 100 myTable.Padding = 2 myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Some Text", New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.SetHorizontalAlignment(Element.ALIGN_RIGHT) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col) myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Other Text",New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col+1) Before I embark down that road I was hoping someone would be able to point me in a direction that I'm just totally missing that will make this conversion much more simple. Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to set SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 from VB(legacy ASP) with ADODB environment?

    - by conecon
    I encountered The SELECT would examine more than MAX_JOIN_SIZE rows; check your WHERE and use SET SQL_BIG_SELECTS=1 or SET SQL_MAX_JOIN_SIZE=# if the SELECT is okay error with my ASP code. ASP code has server side ADODB connection with MySQL and connection seems not be able to execute multiple query. How to implement SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 in my code? Set obj_db = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Session("ConnectionString") = "dsn=dsn1016189_mysql;uid=apns;pwd=mypassword;DATABASE=mydb;APP=ASP Script;STMT=SET CHARACTER SET SJIS" obj_db.Open Session("ConnectionString") Set obj_ret = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") obj_ret.CursorLocation = 3 and executing SQL... SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1; SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.invited, pu.reason, qaa1.answer AS qaa1_answer, COUNT(pu2.p_login_id) AS companion FROM party_user pu LEFT OUTER JOIN party_user pu2 ON pu2.p_login_id = pu.login_id LEFT OUTER JOIN qa_answer qaa1 ON qaa1.login_id = pu.login_id AND qaa1.party_id = pu.party_id AND qaa1.sort_num = '1' WHERE pu.party_id = '92' AND pu.p_login_id = '' GROUP BY pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.reason, qaa1.answer, pu.invited ORDER BY pu.login_id ASC; I can't execute multiple query and above query become error. You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_ad' at line 1

    Read the article

  • Telephone Number to Geolocation UK

    - by David Toy
    Is there a service that provides latitude and longitude for UK phone numbers? For example: Query: 0141 574 xxx, Returns: (55.8659829, -4.2602205) [Glasgow City Centre] Allow me to stress that I am not looking for a reverse-directory-enquires. I am more interested in 'local area' for things like weather by phone or "Where's my nearest Pizza Shop?" If this service doesn't exist your suggestions on how to implement it or where to get data from would also be incredibly useful. I am aware that Ofcom provides a list of area codes with a place name [1] suitable for geolocation, but I have my concerns about resolution. I see this as a particular problem in smaller towns and rural areas where an area code will cover a large geographical area. Second Example: Area Code: 01555, Ofcom: Lanark However: 01555 860xxx is Crossford (4 miles W of Lanark) 01555 77xxxx is Carluke (5 miles NW) 01555 89xxxx is Lesmahagow (5 miles SW) 01555 840xxx is Carnwath (7 miles NE) Therefore 01555 covers about ~80 sq miles. That's not particularly local. [1] Ofcom Area Code Tool: http://www.ofcom.org.uk/consumer/2009/09/telephone-area-codes-tool/

    Read the article

  • CLR Stored Procedures

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    In an ASP.NET application, I have a small number of fairly complex, frequently used operations to execute against a database. In these operations, one or more of several tables needs updates or inserts based a logical evaluation of both input parameters and values of certain tables. I've maintained a separation of logic and data access, so the operation currently looks like this: Request received from client Business layer invokes data layer to retrieve data from database Business layer processes result and determines which operation to execute Business layer invokes appropriate data operation Response sent to client As you can see, the client is kept waiting while two separate requests are made to the database. In searching for a solution to this, I've found CLR Stored Procedures, but I'm not sure if I have the right idea about what they are useful for. I have written a replacement for the code above which especially places steps 2-4 in a CLR SP. My understanding is that the SP will be executed locally by SQL Server and result in only one call being made to the server. My initial benchmark tests show this is actually orders of magnitude slower than my original code, but I attribute that recompilation of the code I have not worked out yet and/or some flaw in my environment. My question is basically, is this the intended use of CLR SPs or am I missing something? I realize this is a bit of a compromise structurally, so if there's a better way to do it I'd love to hear it.

    Read the article

  • MS Access: Why is ADODB.Recordset.BatchUpdate so much slower than Application.ImportXML?

    - by apenwarr
    I'm trying to run the code below to insert a whole lot of records (from a file with a weird file format) into my Access 2003 database from VBA. After many, many experiments, this code is the fastest I've been able to come up with: it does 10000 records in about 15 seconds on my machine. At least 14.5 of those seconds (ie. almost all the time) is in the single call to UpdateBatch. I've read elsewhere that the JET engine doesn't support UpdateBatch. So maybe there's a better way to do it. Now, I would just think the JET engine is plain slow, but that can't be it. After generating the 'testy' table with the code below, I right clicked it, picked Export, and saved it as XML. Then I right clicked, picked Import, and reloaded the XML. Total time to import the XML file? Less than one second, ie. at least 15x faster. Surely there's an efficient way to insert data into Access that doesn't require writing a temp file? Sub TestBatchUpdate() CurrentDb.Execute "create table testy (x int, y int)" Dim rs As New ADODB.Recordset rs.CursorLocation = adUseServer rs.Open "testy", CurrentProject.AccessConnection, _ adOpenStatic, adLockBatchOptimistic, adCmdTableDirect Dim n, v n = Array(0, 1) v = Array(50, 55) Debug.Print "starting loop", Time For i = 1 To 10000 rs.AddNew n, v Next i Debug.Print "done loop", Time rs.UpdateBatch Debug.Print "done update", Time CurrentDb.Execute "drop table testy" End Sub I would be willing to resort to C/C++ if there's some API that would let me do fast inserts that way. But I can't seem to find it. It can't be that Application.ImportXML is using undocumented APIs, can it?

    Read the article

  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

    Read the article

  • How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

    - by user961627
    How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

    Read the article

  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

    Read the article

  • What makes merging in DVCS easy?

    - by afriza
    I read at Joel on Software: With distributed version control, the distributed part is actually not the most interesting part. The interesting part is that these systems think in terms of changes, not in terms of versions. and at HgInit: When we have to merge, Subversion tries to look at both revisions—my modified code, and your modified code—and it tries to guess how to smash them together in one big unholy mess. It usually fails, producing pages and pages of “merge conflicts” that aren’t really conflicts, simply places where Subversion failed to figure out what we did. By contrast, while we were working separately in Mercurial, Mercurial was busy keeping a series of changesets. And so, when we want to merge our code together, Mercurial actually has a whole lot more information: it knows what each of us changed and can reapply those changes, rather than just looking at the final product and trying to guess how to put it together. By looking at the SVN's repository folder, I have the impression that Subversion is maintaining each revisions as changeset. And from what I know, Hg is using both changeset and snapshot while Git is purely using snapshot to store the data. If my assumption is correct, then there must be other ways that make merging in DVCS easy. What are those?

    Read the article

  • PHP (A few questions) OO, refactoring, eclipse

    - by jax
    I am using PHP in eclipse. It works ok, I can connect to my remote site, there is colour coding of code elements and some code hints. I realise this may be too long to answer all questions, if you have a good answer for one part, answering just that is ok. Firstly General Coding I have found that it is easy to loose track of included files and their variables. For example if there was a database $cursor it is difficult to remember or even know that it was declared in the included file (this becomes much worse the more files you include). How are people dealing with this? How are people documenting their code - in particular the required GET and POST data? Secondly OO Development: Should I be going full OO in my development. Currently I have a functions library which I can include and have separated each "task" into a separate file. It is a bit nasty but it works. If I go OO how do I structure the directories in PHP, java uses packages - what about php? How should I name my files, should I use all lower case with _ for spaces "hello_world.php"? Should I name classes with Uppercase like Java "HelloWorld.php"? Is there a different naming convention for Classes and regular function files? Thirdly Refactoring I must say this is a real pain. If I change the name of a variable in one place I have to go through whole document and each file that included this file and change the name their too. Of course, errors everywhere is what results. How are people dealing with this problem? In Java if you change the name in one place it changes everywhere. Are there any plugins to improve php refactoring? I am using the official PHP version of Eclipse from their website. thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

    Read the article

  • Getting proper indentation using XMLBuilder in a helper

    - by Robbie
    I'm attempting to use a view helper to create some dynamic links based on if you're logged in or not. What I want returned, for sake of easy code readability, is: <ul class="right"> <li><a href="#">Login</a></li> <li><a href="#">Register</a></li> </ul> In the view helper I have this Ruby code: def loginh xm = Builder::XmlMarkup.new(:indent=>2, :margin=>4) xm.ul("class" => "right") { xm.li('class' => 'text') { xm.text("test") } } end In the view, the line that calls login helper is already indented 4 levels. Because of this, the first line gets 'skewed', so in the view I have: <%= loginh %> Which results in: <ul class="right"> <li class="text"> <text>test</text> </li> </ul> You can see it works perfectly, except for the first line. It would appear that the first line is affected by the indent before <%= loginh % is called. I can easily remedy this by removing the indentation prior to <%= loginh % - but in essence I'd be sacrificing code readability for markup readability. Which isn't what I'm looking to do. Is there any way I could remove the beginning whitespace?

    Read the article

  • Python regex look-behind requires fixed-width pattern

    - by invictus
    Hi When trying to extract the title of a html-page I have always used the following regex: (?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>) Which will extract everything between the tags in a document and ignore the tags themselves. However, when trying to use this regex in Python it raises the following Exception: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 21, in pattern = re.compile('(?<=)([\s\S]*)(?=)') File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 205, in compile return _compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 273, in _compile p = sre_compile.compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 495, in compile code = _code(p, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 480, in _code _compile(code, p.data, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 115, in _compile raise error("look-behind requires fixed-width pattern") sre_constants.error: look-behind requires fixed-width pattern The code I am using is: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) if I do some minimal adjustments it works: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) This will, however, not take into account potential html titles that for some reason have attributes or similar. Anyone know a good workaround for this issue? Any tips are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I use Perl's WWW::Facebook::API to publish to a user's newsfeed?

    - by Russell C.
    We use Facebook Connect on our site in conjunction with the WWW::Facebook::API CPAN module to publish to our users newsfeed when requested by the user. So far we've been able to successfully update the user's status using the following code: use WWW::Facebook::API; my $facebook = WWW::Facebook::API->new( desktop => 0, api_key => $fb_api_key, secret => $fb_secret, session_key => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_session_key'), session_expires => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_expires'), session_uid => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_user') ); my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, ); However, when we try to update the code above so we can publish newsfeed stories that include attachments and action links as specified in the Facebook API documentation for Stream.Publish, we have tried about 100 different ways without any success. According to the CPAN documentation all we should have to do is update our code to something like the following and pass the attachments & action links appropriately which doesn't seem to work: my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, attachment => $json, action_links => [@links], ); For example, we are passing the above arguments as follows: $json = qq|{ 'name': 'i\'m bursting with joy', 'href': ' http://bit.ly/187gO1', 'caption': '{*actor*} rated the lolcat 5 stars', 'description': 'a funny looking cat', 'properties': { 'category': { 'text': 'humor', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/KYbaN'}, 'ratings': '5 stars' }, 'media': [{ 'type': 'image', 'src': 'http://icanhascheezburger.files.wordpress.com/2009/03/funny-pictures-your-cat-is-bursting-with-joy1.jpg', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/187gO1'}] }|; @links = ["{'text':'Link 1', 'href':'http://www.link1.com'}","{'text':'Link 2', 'href':'http://www.link2.com'}"]; The above, nor any of the other representations we tried seem to work. I'm hoping some other perl developer out there has this working and can explain how to create the attachment and action_links variables appropriately in Perl for posting to the Facebook news feed through WWW::Facebook::API. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

    - by Leeks and Leaks
    I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

    - by Nguyen Tuan Linh
    My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to write a class that interacts with controls on my WPF form?

    - by Adam S
    Hi all, I'm trying to write a class that I can use to interact with a group of similar controls in my wpf application. I have hit a few roadblocks and now I am wondering if this is a poor approach to begin with. I want to do this primarily to make my code more manageable - I have to interact with around 200 - 300 controls with my code, and it could get very tricky to have all my code in the main window class. Here's something I'd like to be able to do: class ProcControl { private CheckBox * [] Boxes = new CheckBox[10]; ProcControl() { //set boxes 0-9 to point to the actual checkboxes } //provides mass checking/unchecking functionality public void Refactor(CheckBox box) { //see what box it is int box_index = 0; while (Boxes[box_index] != box) { box_index++; } } } This doesn't work as it is right now. I have not figured out how to get my Boxes[] array to point to the actual checkboxes on my form, so I can't interact with them yet. Is it even possible to make an array that points to a bunch of controls so that I may process their properties in a nice manner? Why can't I access the controls at all from inside my class?

    Read the article

  • TFS and Forms Authentication

    - by George
    I don't know squat about TFS, other than as a user who has performed simple check in/outs. I just installed it locally and would like to do joint development with a friend. I was having trouble making my TFS web site on port 8080 visible (the whole scoop is here if your interested) and I wonder if it could be related to the fact that TFS is probably using Windows Authentication to identify the user. Can TFS be set up to use forms authentication? We probably need to set up a VPN, though that's a learning curve too. To use TFS, do our machines have to belong to a domain? We're not admin types, though he is better than me, though I would be interested in any feedback or advice on which path is likely to pan out the best. I already got AxoSoft OneTime working in this type of an environment and it suits us well, but I am tempted at all the bells & whistles with TFS and the ability to tie tracked bug items to code changes. As far as finding a good way to share code, do sites like SourceForge allow one to keep code secure among members only?

    Read the article

  • How do I get a UIView to appear instantly?

    - by matsgrip
    I'm trying to create an activity indicator in iPhone app. The problem is that I cannot get it to appear before the actual task i want it to diplay during is already done. Is there something funky about the order in which the iPhone does stuff? Here is my problematic code (in my app delegate): -(BOOL)showProgressView: (NSString *) message { self.progress = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:window.frame]; UIImageView *img = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"squircle.png"]]; [img setAlpha:0.5]; [img setFrame:CGRectMake(94, 173, 133, 133)]; UIActivityIndicatorView *spinner = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(51.5, 51.5, 30, 30)]; spinner.activityIndicatorViewStyle = UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge; [img addSubview:spinner]; [self.progress addSubview:img]; [spinner startAnimating]; [img release]; [spinner release]; [window addSubview:self.progress]; return YES; } I then call this code like this: if ([appDelegate showProgressView:@"Loading..:"]) { //My actual code loads data and stuff here but that is not important //drawCtrl is a UIViewController subclass that is instantiated here UINavigationController *navController = [appDelegate navigationController]; [navController pushViewController:drawCtrl animated:YES]; [drawCtrl release]; } The problem is that my activity indicator does not appear until the new view controller is pushed onto the navController's stack. Can I control this in some way? Thanks in advance! -Mats

    Read the article

  • Custom DataType in DataTemplate breaks WPF designer

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

    Read the article

  • Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

    - by Bas
    I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Warning: passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type" What should I do

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi All, i am pretty new in iphone development. I have created one function to insert data into database. The code compiles successfully. But when comes to statement sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [s UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); it does not do anything but hangs AND in warning it says "passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type"" for all statements in Red colour The same code i am using to fetch the data from database and its working on other viewController. Below in the code. Its pretty straightforward. Please help guys. -(void) SaveData: (NSString *)FirstName: (NSString *)LastName: (NSString *)State: (NSString *)Street: (NSString *)PostCode { databaseName = @"Zen.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDire ctory, NSUserDomainMask,YES); NSString *documentsDir=[documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath=[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; sqlite3 *database; if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sqlStatement = "insert into customers (FirstName, LastName, State, Street, PostCode) values(?, ?, ?, ?, ?)"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [FirstName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,2,[LastName UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,3,[State UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,4,[Street UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,5,[PostCode UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_step(sqlStatement); sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832  | Next Page >