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  • JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

    - by MgSam
    I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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  • Merging datasets based on 2 variables in SAS.

    - by John
    Hye Guys, my question is the following, i'm working with different databases, all contain information about 1000+ companies, a company is defined by its ticker code (the short version of the name( Ford as F) usually seen on stock quotation boards). Aside from the ticker code to merge on I also have to merge on the time, I used month as a count variable throughout my time series. The final purpose is to have a regression in the kind of Y(jt) = c + X(jt) +X1(jt) etc with j = company (ticker) and t = time (month). So imagine I have 2 databases, one which is the base database with variables such as Tickers, months, beta's of a company (risk measure) etc and a second database which has an extra variable (let's say market capitalisation). What I want to do then is to merge these 2 databases based on the ticker and the month. Example: Base database: Ticker __ Month __ Betas AA __ 4 __ 1.2 BB __ 8 __ 1.18 Second database: Ticker __ Month __ MCAP AA __ 4 __ 8542 BB __ 6 __ 1245 Then after merge I would like to have something like this: Ticker __ Month _ Betas ___ MCAP AA __ 4 _ 1.2 ___ 8542 So all observations that do not match BOTH date and ticker have to be dropped, I'm sure this is possible, just can't find the right type of code. Thanks! PS: I'm guessing the underscars have something to do with font layout but both the bold as italic is supposed to be normal :)

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • Using FBML in a ruby sinatra app

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm building an application in ruby using the sinatra framework and am having trouble with rendering some fbml elements. I'm currently trying to render an fb:multi-friend-selector so the user can select which friends they want to invite. However, when I write the following in my code: <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="/inviteFriends" method="POST" invite="true" type="MY APP" content="Invite Friends" > <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends to use YOUR APP NAME."> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> Nothing renders with the text above. I've included the regular facebook xsds for the taglibs in my html tag and have tested fbml on the page using the following code: <fb:name useyou="false" uid="USER_ID" linked="false"/> This code works correctly and displays the user's name. I've tried a simple example like that on http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Fb:random but again nothing is rendered in the browser. Do I need to include some special javascript or anything? I would greatly appreciate some help with this. Thanks in advance -gearoid.

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  • CStdioFile Undeclared Identifier

    - by Eric Regnier
    I am unable to compile my code when using a CStdioFile type. I have included the afx.h header file but I am still receiving errors. What I am trying to do is write a cstring that contains an entire xml document to file. This cstring contains comments inside of it, but when I use other objects such as wofstream to write it to file, these comments are striped out for some reason. So that is why I am trying to write this to file using CStdioFile now. If anyone can help me out as to why I cannot compile my code using CStdioFile, or any other way to write a cstring that contains xml comments to file, please let me know! Below is my code using CStdioFile: CStdioFile xmlFile; xmlFile.Open( "c:\\test.txt", CFile::modeCreate | CFile::modeWrite | CFile::typeText ); xmlFile.WriteString( m_sData ); xmlFile.Close(); And my errors: error C2065: 'CStdioFile' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'modeCreate' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'modeWrite' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'typeText' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'xmlFile' : undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'xmlFile' error C2228: left of '.Close' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2228: left of '.Open' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2228: left of '.WriteString' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup

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  • Form values in a list item

    - by Tri
    Here is the site mock-up I'm working on for my job: http://dev.arm.gov/~noensie/dqhands/cgi-bin/explorer. I'm still a novice in web developing and I need help with placing form values in a list item to pass on to another page. I'd rather not go in great detail the purpose of this website, but in terms of its basic use, select the parameters in the middle column for a request and add it to the list on the right column by pressing on "add request" button when it appears. After the list have been populated, a user would submit the selected requests, which will direct them to another page based on the requests selected (or added to the list, same thing). That last sentence is where I'm having a problem. Right now, each of request in the list in the right column are <li> elements and I assign them attribute values that needed to be passed on to the next page. I tried inserting a hidden input with same values, but I'm still not sure how to utilize that; I'm not even sure using the hidden input is the correct way. Also the "submit request" button is located outside the <form> block. I was going to utilize javascript and jQuery to enable the button to serialize the values in the <form> block, but I don't know quite how to do that. Go ahead and take a look at my javascript code (index.js) and slay me, or, I mean, my code. It's still pretty elementary and short (~260 lines, that's short right?). I will take any help for this problem (as the matter of fact, if you see any other problems or a better way of implementation of something, go ahead and mention that too); tips, advice, code samples, or whatever else you can contribute, it will be greatly appreciated. Tri

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

    - by polygenelubricants
    The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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  • jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

    - by Fred Kafka
    I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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  • Is there a PHP benchmark that meets these specific criteria? [closed]

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The PHP source needs to be in a single file. It should solve a real-world problem. No silly looping over empty methods etc. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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  • How can I use a class with the same name from another namespace in my class?

    - by Beau Simensen
    I have two classes with the same name in different namespaces. I want one of these classes to reference the other class. The reason is that I am migrating to some newer code and I want to update the old code to simply pass through to the newer code. Here is a super basic example: namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) { } string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; namespace project { namespace current { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) {} string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }} // namespace project::current; I expected to be able to do the following to project::legacy::Content, but I am having trouble with some linker issues. Is this an issue with how I'm trying to do this, or do I need to look more closely at my project files to see if I have some sort of weird dependency issues? #include "project/current/Content.h" namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : actualContent_(url) { } string url() { return actualContent_.url(); } private: project::current::Content actualContent_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; The test application compiles fine if I try to reference an instance of project::current::Content but if I try to reference project::current::Content from project::legacy::Content I get an: undefined reference to `project::current::Content::Content(...)` UPDATE As it turns out, this was a GNU Autotoolset issue and was unrelated to the actual topic. Thanks to everyone for their help and suggestions!

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  • How to instantiate spring bean without being referenced from aop:aspect

    - by XDeveloper
    Using Spring and Java; I have a pointcut which works OK. Now I want to remove the pointcut and AOP from the spring and just trigger the event with an event from inside the java code but I want "myAdvice" bean still called via Spring and its properties set. I want to get ridoff all advice things even in java code, no more advice or any trace of AOP, I already have a nice event system working. I just want to instantiate my bean via Spring. When I remove the second code block (one starting with "aop:config") then I noticed the bean "myAdvice" is not called and instantiated anymore. How can i stil call it set its properties without referencing it from the "aop:aspect" ? in my application context ; <bean id="myAdvice" class="com.myclass"> <property name="name1" ref="ref1" /> <property name="name2" ref="ref2" /> </bean> <aop:config proxy-target-class="true"> <aop:aspect id="myAspect" ref="myAdvice"> <aop:pointcut id="myPointcut" expression="execution(* com.myexcmethod" /> <aop:around pointcut-ref="myPointcut" method="invoke" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config>

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  • How do I correctly modify a custom cocoa framework?

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the very-useful ID3 framework in my cocoa project. There's one tiny thing I'd like to modify in it, but I can't seem to get the changes I've made to apply to the built framework. The source code provided with the framework comes with an Xcode project, so I've opened that up and for testings sake put an NSLog(@"hello"); in. It's definetly in a place where it will be called and there are other NSLog() calls in the framework that show up so it's not just console output being supressed. To build the framework once modified I've first cleaned the build folder, made sure that it's actually removed the files, and then built it. Then in the Xcode project I'm using the framework in, I've deleted the old reference and added a new one to the framework that's freshly built. Running my project with the newly build framework doesn't call the modified framework code. I've tried with both the Development and Deployment builds that are part of the framework Xcode project. My gut instinct is that the executable that the framework code is compiled into is being cached somehow. But as I'm fairly unfamiliar with the workings of frameworks, I'm not really sure where to look.

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  • Why does this Object wonk out & get deleted ?

    - by brainydexter
    Stepping through the debugger, the BBox object is okay at the entry of the function, but as soon as it enters the function, the vfptr object points to 0xccccc. I don't get it. What is causing this ? Why is there a virtual table reference in there when the object is not derived from other class. (Though, it resides in GameObject from which my Player class inherits and I retrieve the BBox from within player. But, why does the BBox have the reference ? Shouldn't it be player who should be maintained in that reference ?) For 1; some code for reference: A. I retrieve the bounding box from player. This returns a bounding box as expected. I then send its address to GetGridCells. const BoundingBox& l_Bbox = l_pPlayer-GetBoundingBox(); boost::unordered_set < Cell*, CellPHash & l_GridCells = GetGridCells ( &l_Bbox ); B. This is where a_pBoundingBox goes crazy and gets that garbage value. boost::unordered_set< Cell*, CellPHash CollisionMgr::GetGridCells(const BoundingBox *a_pBoundingBox) { I think the following code is also pertinent, so I'm sticking this in here anyways: const BoundingBox& Player::GetBoundingBox(void) { return BoundingBox( &GetBoundingSphere() ); } const BoundingSphere& Player::GetBoundingSphere(void) { BoundingSphere& l_BSphere = m_pGeomMesh-m_BoundingSphere; l_BSphere.m_Center = GetPosition(); return l_BSphere; } // BoundingBox Constructor BoundingBox(const BoundingSphere* a_pBoundingSphere); Can anyone please give me some idea as to why this is happening? Also, if you want me to post more code, please do let me know. Thanks!

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  • Dot Matrix printing in C# ?

    - by Dale
    I'm trying to print to Dot Matrix printers (various models) out of C#, currently I'm using Win32 API (you can find alot of examples online) calls to send escape codes directly to the printer out of my C# application. This works great, but... My problem is because I'm generating the escape codes and not relying on the windows print system the printouts can't be sent to any "normal" printers or to things like PDF print drivers. (This is now causing a problem as we're trying to use the application on a 2008 Terminal Server using Easy Print [Which is XPS based]) The question is: How can I print formatted documents (invoices on pre-printed stationary) to Dot Matrix printers (Epson, Oki and Panasonic... various models) out of C# not using direct printing, escape codes etc. **Just to clarify, I'm trying things like GDI+ (System.Drawing.Printing) but the problem is that its very hard, to get things to line up like the old code did. (The old code sent the characters direct to the printer bypassing the windows driver.) Any suggestions how things could be improved so that they could use GDI+ but still line up like the old code did?

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  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

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  • Hausman Test, Fixed/random effects in SAS?

    - by John
    Hey guys, I'm trying to do a fixed effecs OLS regression, a random effects OLS Regression and a Hausman test to back up my choice for one of those models. Alas, there does not seem to be a lot of information of what the code looks like when you want to do this. I found for the Hausman test that proc model data=one out=fiml2; endogenous y1 y2; y1 = py2 * y2 + px1 * x1 + interc; y2 = py1* y1 + pz1 * z1 + d2; fit y1 y2 / ols 2sls hausman; instruments x1 z1; run; you do something like this. However, I do not have the equations in the middle, which i assume to be the fixed and random effects models? On an other site I found that PROC TSCSREG automatically displays the Hausman test, unfortunately this does not work either. When I type PROC TSCSREG data = clean; data does not become blue meaning SAS does not recognize this as a type of data input? proc tscsreg data = clean; var nof capm_erm sigma cv fvyrgro meanest tvol bmratio size ab; run; I tried this but obviously doesn't work since it does not recognize the data input, I've been searching but I can't seem to find a proper example of how the code of an hausman test looks like. On the SAS site I neither find the code one has to use to perform a fixed/random effects model. My data has 1784 observations, 578 different firms (cross section?) and spans over a 2001-2006 period in months. Any help?

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  • SqlCe odd results why? -- Same SQL, different results in different apps. Issue with

    - by NitroxDM
    When I run this SQl in my mobile app I get zero rows. select * from inventory WHERE [ITEMNUM] LIKE 'PUMP%' AND [LOCATION] = 'GARAGE' When I run the same SQL in Query Analyzer 3.5 using the same database I get my expected one row. Why the difference? Here is the code I'm using in the mobile app: SqlCeCommand cmd = new SqlCeCommand(Query); cmd.Connection = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source="+filePath+";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); cmd.Connection.Open(); SqlCeDataReader tmpRdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (tmpRdr.Read()) tmpTable.Load(tmpRdr); tmpRdr.Close(); cmd.Connection.Close(); return tmpTable; UPDATE: For the sake of trying I used the code found in one of the answers found here and it works as expected. So my code looks like this: SqlCeConnection conn = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source=" + filePath + ";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); SqlCeDataAdapter AD = new SqlCeDataAdapter(Query, conn); AD.Fill(tmpTable); The issue appears to be with the SqlCeDataReader. Hope this helps someone else out!

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  • Can't override "From" address in MailMessage class using .config login credentials

    - by Jeff
    I'm updating some existing code that sends a simple email using .Net's SMTP classes. Sample code is below. The SMTP host is google and login info is contained in the App.config as shown below (obviously not real login info :)). The problem I'm having, and I haven't been able to find any answers Googling, is that I can NOT override the display of the "from" email address that's contained in the "username" attribute off the Network element in the config in the delivered email. In the line below that explicitly sets the From property off the myMailMessage object, that value, "[email protected]" does NOT display when the email is received. It still shows as "[email protected]" from the Network tag. However, the From name "Sparky" does appear in the email. I've tried adding a custom "From" header to the Header property of the myMailMessage but that didn't work either. Is there anyway to login to the smtp server, as shown below using the Network tag credentials, but in the actual email received override the From email address that's displayed? Sample code: MailMessage myMailMessage = new MailMessage(); myMailMessage.Subject = "My New Mail"; myMailMessage.Body = "This is my test mail to check"; myMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "Sparky"); myMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]", "receiver name")); SmtpClient mySmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mySmtpClient.Send(myMailMessage); in App.config: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" port="587" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false"/> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net>

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  • Calling an Oracle PL/SQL procedure with Custom Object return types from 0jdbc6 JDBCthin drivers

    - by Andrew Harmel-Law
    I'm writing some JDBC code which calls a Oracle 11g PL/SQL procdedure which has a Custom Object return type. Whenever I try an register my return types, I get either ORA-03115 or PLS-00306 as an error when the statement is executed depending on the type I set. An example is below: PLSQL Code: Procedure GetDataSummary (p_my_key IN KEYS.MY_KEY%TYPE, p_recordset OUT data_summary_tab, p_status OUT VARCHAR2); Java Code: String query = "beginmanageroleviewdata.getdatasummary(?, ?, ?); end;"); CallableStatement stmt = conn.prepareCall(query); stmt.setInt(1, 83); stmt.registerOutParameter(2, OracleTypes.CURSOR); // Causes error: PLS-00306 stmt.registerOutParameter(3, OracleTypes.VARCHAR); stmt.execute(stmt); // Error mentioned above thrown here. Can anyone provide me with an example showing how I can do this? I guess it's possible. However I can't see a rowset OracleType. CURSOR, REF, DATALINK, and more fail. Apologies if this is a dumb question. I'm not a PL/SQL expert and may have used the wrong terminology in some areas of my question. (If so, please edit me). Thanks in advance. Regs, Andrew

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  • Microsoft Detours - DetourUpdateThread?

    - by pault543
    Hi, I have a few quick questions about the Microsoft Detours Library. I have used it before (successfully), but I just had a thought about this function: LONG DetourUpdateThread(HANDLE hThread); I read elsewhere that this function will actually suspend the thread until the transaction completes. This seems odd since most sample code calls: DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); Anyway, apparently this function "enlists" threads so that, when the transaction commits (and the detours are made), their instruction pointers are modified if they lie "within the rewritten code in either the target function or the trampoline function." My questions are: When the transaction commits, is the current thread's instruction pointer going to be within the DetourTransactionCommit function? If so, why should we bother enlisting it to be updated? Also, if the enlisted threads are suspended, how can the current thread continue executing (given that most sample code calls DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread());)? Finally, could you suspend all threads for the current process, avoiding race conditions (considering that threads could be getting created and destroyed at any time)? Perhaps this is done when the transaction begins? This would allow us to enumerate threads more safely (as it seems less likely that new threads could be created), although what about CreateRemoteThread()? Thanks, Paul For reference, here is an extract from the simple sample: // DllMain function attaches and detaches the TimedSleep detour to the // Sleep target function. The Sleep target function is referred to // through the TrueSleep target pointer. BOOL WINAPI DllMain(HINSTANCE hinst, DWORD dwReason, LPVOID reserved) { if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourAttach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } else if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_DETACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourDetach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } return TRUE; }

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • Can someone help me with this StructureMap error i'm getting?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to wire up a simple ASP.NET MVC2 controller class to my own LoggingService. Code compiles fine, but I get the following runtime error :- {"StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily System.Type, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"} what the? mscorlib ???? Here's some sample code of my wiring up .. protected void Application_Start() { MvcHandler.DisableMvcResponseHeader = true; BootstrapStructureMap(); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory( new StructureMapControllerFactory()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } private static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.For<ILoggingService>().Use<Log4NetLoggingService>()); } and finally the controller, simplified for this question ... public class SearchController : Controller { private readonly ILoggingService _log { get; set; } public SearchController(ILoggingService loggingService) : base(loggingService) { // Error checking removed for brevity. _log = loggingService; _log.Tag = "SearchController"; } ... } and the structuremap factory (main method), also way simplified for this question... protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType != null) { try { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (Exception exception) { if (exception is StructureMapException) { Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } } } hmm. I just don't get it. StructureMap version 2.6.1.0 ASP.NET MVC 2. Any ideas?

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  • Free tools/libraries to compare tables with filtering in different databases and visualize/sync diff

    - by MicMit
    I am building certain GUI in C# for a content manager and looking for the tools or code snippets or open libraries ( code ideally in C# ) which allow me the following : 1. For table A in database X (test ) and table A in database Y (production) and for a simple filter ( e.g. listname = "XYZ" ) I need to show additions/deletions/updates in some way. which might be side-by-side or just html report 2 record added html table with some fields 2 record deleted html table with some fields Considering that this task is very common, I guess, certain components should exist ? Components either return some collections from parameters given for further visualizing or just produce reports mentioned above. 2. I need to push changes for the filter I mentioned in 1 and update table in production database for this filter only ( ie for the particular list approved by content person). Again probably there are certain SQL code generators - components in addition to diffs or standalone. 3. The key thing tools/libraries - should be suitable for integration with the existing application in C#.

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