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• Can someone copyright an SQL query?

  - by Samutz

  I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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• SqlCe odd results why? -- Same SQL, different results in different apps. Issue with

  - by NitroxDM

  When I run this SQl in my mobile app I get zero rows. select * from inventory WHERE [ITEMNUM] LIKE 'PUMP%' AND [LOCATION] = 'GARAGE' When I run the same SQL in Query Analyzer 3.5 using the same database I get my expected one row. Why the difference? Here is the code I'm using in the mobile app: SqlCeCommand cmd = new SqlCeCommand(Query); cmd.Connection = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source="+filePath+";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); cmd.Connection.Open(); SqlCeDataReader tmpRdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (tmpRdr.Read()) tmpTable.Load(tmpRdr); tmpRdr.Close(); cmd.Connection.Close(); return tmpTable; UPDATE: For the sake of trying I used the code found in one of the answers found here and it works as expected. So my code looks like this: SqlCeConnection conn = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source=" + filePath + ";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); SqlCeDataAdapter AD = new SqlCeDataAdapter(Query, conn); AD.Fill(tmpTable); The issue appears to be with the SqlCeDataReader. Hope this helps someone else out!

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• HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

  - by stormin986

  My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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• Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

  - by alyoshak

  When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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• Dot Matrix printing in C# ?

  - by Dale

  I'm trying to print to Dot Matrix printers (various models) out of C#, currently I'm using Win32 API (you can find alot of examples online) calls to send escape codes directly to the printer out of my C# application. This works great, but... My problem is because I'm generating the escape codes and not relying on the windows print system the printouts can't be sent to any "normal" printers or to things like PDF print drivers. (This is now causing a problem as we're trying to use the application on a 2008 Terminal Server using Easy Print [Which is XPS based]) The question is: How can I print formatted documents (invoices on pre-printed stationary) to Dot Matrix printers (Epson, Oki and Panasonic... various models) out of C# not using direct printing, escape codes etc. **Just to clarify, I'm trying things like GDI+ (System.Drawing.Printing) but the problem is that its very hard, to get things to line up like the old code did. (The old code sent the characters direct to the printer bypassing the windows driver.) Any suggestions how things could be improved so that they could use GDI+ but still line up like the old code did?

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• Free tools/libraries to compare tables with filtering in different databases and visualize/sync diff

  - by MicMit

  I am building certain GUI in C# for a content manager and looking for the tools or code snippets or open libraries ( code ideally in C# ) which allow me the following : 1. For table A in database X (test ) and table A in database Y (production) and for a simple filter ( e.g. listname = "XYZ" ) I need to show additions/deletions/updates in some way. which might be side-by-side or just html report 2 record added html table with some fields 2 record deleted html table with some fields Considering that this task is very common, I guess, certain components should exist ? Components either return some collections from parameters given for further visualizing or just produce reports mentioned above. 2. I need to push changes for the filter I mentioned in 1 and update table in production database for this filter only ( ie for the particular list approved by content person). Again probably there are certain SQL code generators - components in addition to diffs or standalone. 3. The key thing tools/libraries - should be suitable for integration with the existing application in C#.

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• Can someone help me with this StructureMap error i'm getting?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to wire up a simple ASP.NET MVC2 controller class to my own LoggingService. Code compiles fine, but I get the following runtime error :- {"StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily System.Type, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"} what the? mscorlib ???? Here's some sample code of my wiring up .. protected void Application_Start() { MvcHandler.DisableMvcResponseHeader = true; BootstrapStructureMap(); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory( new StructureMapControllerFactory()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } private static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.For<ILoggingService>().Use<Log4NetLoggingService>()); } and finally the controller, simplified for this question ... public class SearchController : Controller { private readonly ILoggingService _log { get; set; } public SearchController(ILoggingService loggingService) : base(loggingService) { // Error checking removed for brevity. _log = loggingService; _log.Tag = "SearchController"; } ... } and the structuremap factory (main method), also way simplified for this question... protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType != null) { try { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (Exception exception) { if (exception is StructureMapException) { Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } } } hmm. I just don't get it. StructureMap version 2.6.1.0 ASP.NET MVC 2. Any ideas?

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• Microsoft Detours - DetourUpdateThread?

  - by pault543

  Hi, I have a few quick questions about the Microsoft Detours Library. I have used it before (successfully), but I just had a thought about this function: LONG DetourUpdateThread(HANDLE hThread); I read elsewhere that this function will actually suspend the thread until the transaction completes. This seems odd since most sample code calls: DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); Anyway, apparently this function "enlists" threads so that, when the transaction commits (and the detours are made), their instruction pointers are modified if they lie "within the rewritten code in either the target function or the trampoline function." My questions are: When the transaction commits, is the current thread's instruction pointer going to be within the DetourTransactionCommit function? If so, why should we bother enlisting it to be updated? Also, if the enlisted threads are suspended, how can the current thread continue executing (given that most sample code calls DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread());)? Finally, could you suspend all threads for the current process, avoiding race conditions (considering that threads could be getting created and destroyed at any time)? Perhaps this is done when the transaction begins? This would allow us to enumerate threads more safely (as it seems less likely that new threads could be created), although what about CreateRemoteThread()? Thanks, Paul For reference, here is an extract from the simple sample: // DllMain function attaches and detaches the TimedSleep detour to the // Sleep target function. The Sleep target function is referred to // through the TrueSleep target pointer. BOOL WINAPI DllMain(HINSTANCE hinst, DWORD dwReason, LPVOID reserved) { if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourAttach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } else if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_DETACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourDetach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } return TRUE; }

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• What are some choices to port existing Windows GUI app written in C to Linux?

  - by Warner Young

  I've been tasked with porting an existing Windows GUI app to Linux. Ideally, I'd like to do this so the same code base can be used to build either the Windows version or the Linux version. I'll be doing my work on Ubuntu 9.04. After searching around, it's unclear to me what tools are best suited to help me with this. A list of loose requirements would be: The code is in C, not C++, and should compile to build both Windows and Linux versions. Since it's existing code, and fairly large, converting to a managed language like .NET is out of the question for now. I would prefer if I can use the same dialogs in both systems. In Windows, putting up a dialog is pretty simple. You build the dialog in the Resource Editor in Visual Studio, then call DialogBox() API, and handle the event messages. I would really like to find something that can do the equivalent on the Linux side. It would also be nice to have a good IDE similar to Visual Studio. Any helps or hints would be appreciated. Thanks,

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• how to create an function using jquery live? [Solved]

  - by Mahmoud

  Hey all i am trying to create a function that well keep the user in lightbox images while he adds to cart, for a demo you can visit secure.sabayafrah.com username: mahmud password: mahmud when you click at any image it well enlarge using lightbox v2, so when the user clicks at the image add, it well refresh the page, when i asked about it at jcart support form they informed me to use jquery live, but i dont know how to do it but as far as i tried this code which i used but still nothing is happening jQuery(function($) { $('#button') .livequery(eventType, function(event) { alert('clicked'); // to check if it works or not return false; }); }); i also used jQuery(function($) { $('input=[name=addto') .livequery(eventType, function(event) { alert('clicked'); // to check if it works or not return false; }); }); yet nothing worked for code to create those images http://pasite.org/code/572 Update 1: i have done this function adding(form){ $( "form.jcart" ).livequery('submit', function() {var b=$(this).find('input[name=<?php echo $jcart['item_id']?>]').val();var c=$(this).find('input[name=<?php echo $jcart['item_price']?>]').val();var d=$(this).find('input[name=<?php echo $jcart['item_name']?>]').val();var e=$(this).find('input[name=<?php echo $jcart['item_qty']?>]').val();var f=$(this).find('input[name=<?php echo $jcart['item_add']?>]').val();$.post('<?php echo $jcart['path'];?>jcart-relay.php',{"<?php echo $jcart['item_id']?>":b,"<?php echo $jcart['item_price']?>":c,"<?php echo $jcart['item_name']?>":d,"<?php echo $jcart['item_qty']?>":e,"<?php echo $jcart['item_add']?>":f} }); return false; } and it seems to add to jcart but yet it still refreshes

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• NSOperation and fwrite (Iphone)

  - by Sridhar

  Hi, I am having problem with this code.Basically I want to execute the fwrite from a timer function asyncronusly. Here is the code block in my Timer function. (This will call by the timer every 0.2 seconds. -(void)timerFunction { WriteFileOperation * operation = [WriteFileOperation writeFileWithBuffer:pFile buffer:readblePixels length:nBytes*15]; [_queue addOperation:operation]; // Here it is waiting to complete the fwrite } The WrtiteFilerOperation is an NSoperation class which it has to write the passing buffer to a file. I added this code in WriteFileOperation's "start" method. (void)start { if (![NSThread isMainThread]) { [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(start) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; return; } [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; _isExecuting = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; NSLog(@"write bytes %d",fwrite(_buffer, 1, _nBytes, _file)); free(_buffer); [self finish]; } The problem here is , my timerFunction blocked by NSOperation until it writes the buffer into file.(I mean blocked till start method finishes its execution) and the performance seems same as directly placing the fwrite in timerFunction. I want to just return to timerFunction with out waiting from the start method execution to be completed. What I am doing wrong here ? Thanks In Advance Raghu

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• How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

  - by Russ Hayward

  I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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• JPanel.addComponentListener does not work when the listener is a class variable

  - by Coder

  I have a public class which has the following method and instance variable: public void setImagePanel(JPanel value) { imagePanel = value; if (imagePanel != null) { //method 1 : works imagePanel.addComponentListener(new ComponentAdapter() { public void componentResized(ComponentEvent evt) { System.out.println("Here 1"); } }); //method 2 : does not work panelResizeListener = new ResizeListener(); imagePanel.addComponentListener(panelResizeListener); //method 3 : works //ResizeListener listener = new ResizeListener(); //imagePanel.addComponentListener(listener); //method 4 : works //imagePanel.addComponentListener(new ResizeListener()); //method 5 : does not work -- THIS IS THE DESIRED CODE I WANT TO USE imagePanel.addComponentListener(panelResizeListener); } } public class ResizeListener extends ComponentAdapter { @Override public void componentResized(ComponentEvent evt) { System.out.println("RESIZE 3"); } } private ResizeListener panelResizeListener = new ResizeListener(); Each of the methods above correspond the to code immediately below until the next //method comment. What i don't understand is why i can't use the class instance variable and add that to the JPanel as a component listener. What happens in the cases above where i say that the method does not work is that i don't get the "RESIZE 3" log messages. In all cases where i list that it works, then i get the "RESIZE 3" messages. The outer class is public with no other modification except that it implements an interface that i created (which has no methods or variables in common with the methods and variables listed above). If anyone can help me i would greatly appreciate it. This problem makes no sense to me, the code should be identical.

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• Calling an Oracle PL/SQL procedure with Custom Object return types from 0jdbc6 JDBCthin drivers

  - by Andrew Harmel-Law

  I'm writing some JDBC code which calls a Oracle 11g PL/SQL procdedure which has a Custom Object return type. Whenever I try an register my return types, I get either ORA-03115 or PLS-00306 as an error when the statement is executed depending on the type I set. An example is below: PLSQL Code: Procedure GetDataSummary (p_my_key IN KEYS.MY_KEY%TYPE, p_recordset OUT data_summary_tab, p_status OUT VARCHAR2); Java Code: String query = "beginmanageroleviewdata.getdatasummary(?, ?, ?); end;"); CallableStatement stmt = conn.prepareCall(query); stmt.setInt(1, 83); stmt.registerOutParameter(2, OracleTypes.CURSOR); // Causes error: PLS-00306 stmt.registerOutParameter(3, OracleTypes.VARCHAR); stmt.execute(stmt); // Error mentioned above thrown here. Can anyone provide me with an example showing how I can do this? I guess it's possible. However I can't see a rowset OracleType. CURSOR, REF, DATALINK, and more fail. Apologies if this is a dumb question. I'm not a PL/SQL expert and may have used the wrong terminology in some areas of my question. (If so, please edit me). Thanks in advance. Regs, Andrew

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• Translating CURL to FLEX HTTPRequests

  - by Joshua

  I am trying to convert from some CURL code to FLEX/ActionScript. Since I am 100% ignorant about CURL and 50% ignorant about Flex and 90% ignorant on HTTP in general... I'm having some significant difficulty. The following CURL code is from http://code.google.com/p/ga-api-http-samples/source/browse/trunk/src/v2/accountFeed.sh I have every reason to believe that it's working correctly. USER_EMAIL="[email protected]" #Insert your Google Account email here USER_PASS="secretpass" #Insert your password here googleAuth="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s \ -d Email=$USER_EMAIL \ -d Passwd=$USER_PASS \ -d accountType=GOOGLE \ -d source=curl-accountFeed-v2 \ -d service=analytics \ | awk /Auth=.*/)" feedUri="https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default\ ?prettyprint=true" curl $feedUri --silent \ --header "Authorization: GoogleLogin $googleAuth" \ --header "GData-Version: 2" The following is my abortive attempt to translate the above CURL to AS3 var request:URLRequest=new URLRequest("https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default"); request.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; var GoogleAuth:String="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s " + "-d [email protected] " + "-d Passwd=secretpass " + "-d accountType=GOOGLE " + "-d source=curl-accountFeed-v2" + "-d service=analytics " + "| awk /Auth=.*/)"; request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("Authorization", "GoogleLogin " + GoogleAuth)); request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("GData-Version", "2")); var loader:URLLoader=new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, GACompleteHandler); loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.load(request); This probably provides you all with a good laugh, and that's okay, but if you can find any pity on me, please let me know what I'm missing. I readily admit functional ineptitude, therefore letting me know how stupid I am is optional.

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• How to use sessions in PDO?

  - by Byakugan

  I am still redoing and getting rid of old mysql_* commands in my code. I tried to transfer my session login form old code and this is what I got so far: public function login($user, $password) { if (!empty($user) && !empty($password)) { $password = $web->doHash($user, $password); // in this function is (return sha1(strtoupper($user).':'.strtoupper($password)) $stmt = $db_login->prepare("SELECT * FROM account WHERE username=:user AND pass_hash=:password"); $stmt->bindValue(':user', $user, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindValue(':password', $password, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $rows = $stmt->rowCount(); if ($rows > 0) { $results_login = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $_SESSION['user_name'] = $results_login['username']; $_SESSION['user_id'] = $results_login['id']; return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } After that I am using checks if user logged on site: public function isLogged() { return (!empty($_SESSION['user_id']) && !empty($_SESSION['user_name'])); } But it seems - this function returns always empty because $_SESSION does not exists in PDO? And of course logout is used in this form on my sites: public function logout() { unset($_SESSION['user_id']); unset($_SESSION['user_name']); } But I think PDO has different way of handling session? I did not find any so what is it can i somehow add $_SESSION in PDO withou changing code much? I am using variables $_SESSION['user_name'] and $_SESSION['user_id'] in all over my web project. Summary: 1) How to use sessions in PDO correctly? 2) What is difference between using $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); and $stmt->fetchAll(); Thank you.

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• AJAX problem-onreadystate does not work

  - by blackmage

  I am having a problem where my AJAX code does not get past the onreadtstate. The if( XMLHttpRequestObject) works fine, but the other part does not. The code is below: enter code here function getXmlHttpRequestObject() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest && !(window.ActiveXObject)) { XMLHttpRequestObject= new XMLHttpRequest(); return XMLHttpRequestObject; } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { try{ XMLHttpRequestObject=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); return XMLHttpRequestObject; }catch(exception1){ try{ XMLHttpRequestObject= new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); return XMLHttpRequestObject; }catch(exception2){ }//end exception 2 }//end exception 1 }//end if else else{ document.getElementById('ajax_status').innerHTML='Status: Cound not create XmlHttpRequest Object.' + 'Consider upgrading your browser.'; } }//end function getXmlHttpRequestObject() { function loadJavascript( src, url ){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); if( XMLHttpRequestObject){ //an alert will work here XMLHttpRequestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { alert("Here"); //Nothing at this pint works if (XMLHttpRequestObject.readyState == 4 && XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 200) { includeJavaScript( sId, url, oXmlHttp.responseText ); } } } }//end LoadJavaScript Does anyone have an idea of what can be going wrong?

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• rpy2: Converting a data.frame to a numpy array

  - by Mike Dewar

  I have a data.frame in R. It contains a lot of data : gene expression levels from many (125) arrays. I'd like the data in Python, due mostly to my incompetence in R and the fact that this was supposed to be a 30 minute job. I would like the following code to work. To understand this code, know that the variable path contains the full path to my data set which, when loaded, gives me a variable called immgen. Know that immgen is an object (a Bioconductor ExpressionSet object) and that exprs(immgen) returns a data frame with 125 columns (experiments) and tens of thousands of rows (named genes). robjects.r("load('%s')"%path) # loads immgen e = robjects.r['data.frame']("exprs(immgen)") expression_data = np.array(e) This code runs, but expression_data is simply array([[1]]). I'm pretty sure that e doesn't represent the data frame generated by exprs() due to things like: In [40]: e._get_ncol() Out[40]: 1 In [41]: e._get_nrow() Out[41]: 1 But then again who knows? Even if e did represent my data.frame, that it doesn't convert straight to an array would be fair enough - a data frame has more in it than an array (rownames and colnames) and so maybe life shouldn't be this easy. However I still can't work out how to perform the conversion. The documentation is a bit too terse for me, though my limited understanding of the headings in the docs implies that this should be possible. Anyone any thoughts?

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• Dynamically created controls and the ASP.NET page lifecycle

  - by Dirk

  I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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• Free tools/libraries to compare tables with filtering for SQL Server 2008 and visualize/sync diffs t

  - by MicMit

  I am building certain GUI in C# for a content manager and looking for the tools or code snippets or open libraries ( code ideally in C# ) which allow me the following : 1. For table A in database X (test ) and table A in database Y (production) and for a simple filter ( e.g. listname = "XYZ" ) I need to show additions/deletions/updates in some way. which might be side-by-side or just html report 2 record added html table with some fields 2 record deleted html table with some fields Considering that this task is very common, I guess, certain components should exist ? Components either return some collections from parameters given for further visualizing or just produce reports mentioned above. 2. I need to push changes for the filter I mentioned in 1 and update table in production database for this filter only ( ie for the particular list approved by content person). Again probably there are certain SQL code generators - components in addition to diffs or standalone. 3. The key thing tools/libraries - should be suitable for integration with the existing application in C#.

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• ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

  - by Jarek Waliszko

  Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

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• Storing User Information in Session with aspNetMembershipProvider

  - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid

  Hi Everyone, i m developing an application in .NET mvc2. i m using aspnetMembershipProvider for User registration and related activities. i need some custom information about user that i stored in a separate table (sysUser for example) and linked it to aspnetUser table through foreign key. after Login i need to fetch user's credentials from sysUser table and push it to the session. For this Account controller's Logon method seemed best to me and i pasted following code in my Logon ActionResult if (!ValidateLogOn(userName, password)) { return View(); } FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, rememberMe); ApplicationRepository _ApplicationRepository = new ApplicationRepository(); MembershipUser aspUser = Membership.GetUser(userName); SessionUser CurrentUser = _ApplicationRepository.GetUserCredentials(aspUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString()); //Session["CurrentUser"] = CurrentUser; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) { return Redirect(returnUrl); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } The code is working perfectly for me and put my desired information in the session but the thing is that if a user selects Remember me and on his next visit he won't have to Log in and i would not find my desired information in the Session. Can anyone guide me where should i put my code that stores the user information in the session. any Help is Highly appreciated Regards Adeel

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• SQL UNION ALL problem after using UNION ALL more than 10 times

  - by VBGKM

  I'm getting a formatting problem if I use more than 10 UNION ALL statements in my VBA Code. If I use 10 or less everything works great. What I'm trying to do is combine 12 worksheets (Excel 2007). I have a numerical column called SC that turns into string and date if I have more than 10 UNION ALL. If I try to use ROUND with more than 10 UNION ALL my last selection will change all the records by one unit. I'm using Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0 as my provider and my connection string has worked for several things in my code so far. Is there any limit for UNION ALL statements when using OLEDB? Here is my code. Dim StrOr As String Dim i As Variant Dim Cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset For i = 1 To 12 StrOr = StrOr & " " & "SELECT SC FROM [" & MonthName(i, True) & "$" & "] UNION ALL" Next StrOr = Left(StrOr, Len(StrOr) - 9) & ";" Call GetADOCnt Call ADORs

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• Does Ctypes Structures and POINTERS automatically free the memory when the Python object is deleted?

  - by jsbueno

  When using Python CTypes there are the Structures, that allow you to clone c-structures on the Python side, and the POINTERS objects that create a sofisticated Python Object from a memory address value and can be used to pass objects by reference back and forth C code. What I could not find on the documentation or elsewhere is what happens when a Python object containing a Structure class that was de-referenced from a returning pointer from C Code (that is - the C function alocated memory for the structure) is itself deleted. Is the memory for the original C structure freed? If not how to do it? Furthermore -- what if the Structure contains Pointers itself, to other data that was also allocated by the C function? Does the deletion of the Structure object frees the Pointers onits members? (I doubt so) Else - -how to do it? Trying to call the system "free" from Python for the Pointers in the Structure is crashing Python for me. In other words, I have this structure filled up by a c Function call: class PIX(ctypes.Structure): """Comments not generated """ _fields_ = [ ("w", ctypes.c_uint32), ("h", ctypes.c_uint32), ("d", ctypes.c_uint32), ("wpl", ctypes.c_uint32), ("refcount", ctypes.c_uint32), ("xres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("yres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("informat", ctypes.c_int32), ("text", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_char)), ("colormap", ctypes.POINTER(PIXCOLORMAP)), ("data", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_uint32)) ] And I want to free the memory it is using up from Python code.

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• jquery question for events

  - by OM The Eternity

  I have to copy the text from one text box to another using checkbox through jquery I have applied jquery event in my code, it works partially correct.. code is as follows: <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#startdate").change(function(o){ if($("#checker").is(":checked")){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> this code works as follows, I always have checkbox checked by default hence whenever i insert the start date and then tab, the start date gets copied to enddate. My Problem but now if uncheck the checkbox and change the start date and then recheck the check box, the start date is not copied, Now what should be done in this situation.. please help me....

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