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  • SQL Server 2008 Running trigger after Insert, Update locks original table

    - by Polity
    Hi Folks, I have a serious performance problem. I have a database with (related to this problem), 2 tables. 1 Table contains strings with some global information. The second table contains the string stripped down to each individual word. So the string is like indexed in the second table, word by word. The validity of the data in the second table is of less important then the validity of the data in the first table. Since the first table can grow like towards 1*10^6 records and the second table having an average of like 10 words for 1 string can grow like 1*10^7 records, i use a nolock in order to read the second this leaves me free for inserting new records without locking it (Expect many reads on both tables). I have a script which keeps on adding and updating rows to the first table in a MERGE statement. On average, the data beeing merged are like 20 strings a time and the scripts runs like ones every 5 seconds. On the first table, i have a trigger which is beeing invoked on a Insert or Update, which takes the newly inserted or updated data and calls a stored procedure on it which makes sure the data is indexed in the second table. (This takes some significant time). The problem is that when having the trigger disbaled, Reading the first table happens in a few ms. However, when enabling the trigger and your in bad luck of trying to read the first table while this is beeing updated, Our webserver gives you a timeout after 10 seconds (which is way to long anyways). I can quess from this part that when running the trigger, the first table is kept (partially) in a lock untill the trigger is completed. What do you think, if i'm right, is there a easy way around this? Thanks in advance! Cheers, Koen

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  • WCF Message Debugging on WebHttpBehavior

    - by Programming Hero
    I've created a custom binding in WCF for a custom MessageEncoder to allow messages to be written as XML using a wider range of encodings than WCF supports out of the box. The encoder appears to be working and I am able to send and receive messages, but I want to verify that the XML message being written is exactly as required by the service I am trying to consume. I've turned on message logging for WCF using the diagnostic trace listeners to output the messages sent and received over the wire to a log file. Unfortunately, for calls using my encoder, the message is displayed as ... stream ... EDIT: I don't think it's anything to do with my custom encoding. I have experimented with my custom binding a little, switching to using the built-in text encoding and http transport. I still don't get a message body logged in the message trace. EDIT2: Having done further investigation, the issue looks to be related not to the custom binding, but the custom behaviour. I'm apply the <webHttp/> behaviour. Once this is specified (along with manual addressing), the tracing behaviour shows up. Is this a known issue with WebHttpBehavior? Am I still barking up the wrong tree?

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • SmtpClient.SendAsync - How to ensure my application doesn't finish before callback?

    - by James
    Hi, I need to send emails asychronously through a console application. I need to do some DB updates on the callback but my application is exiting before the callback code gets run! How can I stop this from happening in a nice manner rather than simply guessing how long to wait before exiting. I would imagine the Async calls get placed in some form of thread? Is it possible to check if any are waiting to be called? Sample Code private static void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string) e.UserState; if (e.Cancelled) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] Send canceled.", token); } if (e.Error != null) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] {1}", token, e.Error.ToString()); } else { // update DB Console.WriteLine("Message sent."); } } public static void Main(string[] args) { var users = Repository.GetUsers(); SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("Host"); client.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailAddress from = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "System", Encoding.UTF8); foreach (var user in users) { MailAddress to = new MailAddress(user.Email); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Body = "This is a test"; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Subject = "test message 1" + someArrows; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string userState = String.Format("Message for user id {0}", user.ID); client.SendAsync(message, userState); message.Dispose(); } // need to wait here until I have received a callback for each message // otherwise the application will exit }

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  • Blackberry: How to properly handle focus traversal in custom field?

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am writing an app for Blackberry and I have the following problem: I have implemented a custom field by extending the Manager class. The field is quite simple, it consists of a label and two check boxes, yes and no. The fields are laid out so that the label is on the left and uses as much space as it can while still allowing room for the check boxes which are positioned next to each other at the right and vertically centred compared to the label (if it spans more than one line). So it looks like this: This is a question? O Yes O No Everything is fine so far in terms of laying out the fields. But now I am trying to handle focus traversal. First of all the default behaviour when the user scrolls up or down is to move between the yes and no options. I want to move to the next field above or below when up or down is pressed, so I did this: protected int moveFocus(int amount, int status, int time) { if (status == 537001984 || status == -1610481664) { // Up or down was pressed // Don't move focus between yes and no when up or down is pressed. return amount; } return super.moveFocus(amount, status, time); } And that seems to work. The next thing I would like to do is to remember which option last had the focus when the field loses focus, then on gaining focus again (regardless of which direction the focus comes from) set this field to have the focus. I tried overriding onUnfocus and onFocus so that onUnfocus I note which field was focussed then onFocus setFocus to that field. But I get a StackOverflowError, I guess because the call to setFocus on a field within the manager actually calls onFocus for the manager itself again?? So does anyone know how I should be doing this? I checked the DateField and it has the exact behaviour I am looking for, i.e. it remembers if you were last on the day, month or year field and sets this field to focus when the field itself gets the focus.

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  • IE8 window.opener problems

    - by fire
    Having problems with IE8... I have a button that onclick fires the showImageBrowser() function. function showImageBrowser(params) { var open = window.open('http://localhost/admin/browse?'+params,'newwin','toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=1,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=950,height=500'); if (!open) { alert('Could not open the image browser, please disable your popup blocker.'); } } Now in the image browser when you click on an image it calls this function: function selectFile(url, el) { window.opener.replaceImage('Test_Image', url); window.close(); } Which is calling the replaceImage() function in the parent window, as expeted. This is the code: function replaceImage(el, url) { $('#'+el).html('<a href="'+url+'" target="_blank" class="image">'+basename(url)+'</a>'); $("input[name='"+el+"']").val(url); } Now if you click on the original showImageBrowser() button for the second time, IE will bring up the window but this time it freezes for a few seconds and then you get the alert "Could not open the image browser, please disable your popup blocker." This works fine in Firefox (obviously) but not in IE. I haven't even tried it in IE7/6 because if it doesn't work in 8 then I know I'm going to have problems. Any advice?

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  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

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  • Workflow engine BPMN, Drools, etc or ESB?

    - by Tom
    We currently have an application that is based on an in-house developed workflow engine with YAML based DSL. We are looking to move parts of it to Java. I have discovered a number of java solutions like Intalio, JBPM, Drools Expert, Drools Flow etc. They appear to be aimed at businesses where the business analyst creates the workflows using a graphical editor and submits them to the workflow engine. They seem geared towards ease of use for non-technical people rather than for developers with a focus on human interaction. The workflows tend to look like. Discover-a-file -\ -> join -> process-file -> move-file -> register-file Discover-some-metadata -/ If any step fails we need to retry it X times. We also need to be able to stop the system and be able to restart it and have it continue from where it was (durable). Some of our workflows can be defined by a set of goals we need to achieve so Jess's backwards rule chaining sounds interesting but it is not open source. It might be that what we are after is a Finite State Machine engine or just an Enterprise Service Bus and do everything as JMS queues. Is there a good open source workflow engine that is both standards-based but also geared towards developers. We don't particular want to use a graphical workflow designer or write reams of XML and it should ideally be in Java or language agnostic (makes REST/Soap calls to external services). Thanks, Tom

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  • Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ function calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have: Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is sufficient?

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  • Static Data Structures on Embedded Devices (Android in particular)

    - by Mark
    I've started working on some Android applications and have a question regarding how people normally deal with situations where you have a static data set and have an application where that data is needed in memory as one of the standard java collections or as an array. In my current specific issue i have a spreadsheet with some pre-calculated data. It consists of ~100 rows and 3 columns. 1 Column is a string, 1 column is a float, 1 column is an integer. I need access to this data as an array in java. It seems like i could: 1) Encode in XML - This would be cpu intensive to decode in my experience. 2) build into SQLite database - seems like a lot of overhead for static access to data i only need array style access to in ram. 3) Build into binary blob and read in. (never done this in java, i miss void *) 4) Build a python script to take the CSV version of my data and spit out a java function that adds the values to my desired structure with hard coded values. 5) Store a string array via androids resource mechanism and compute the other 2 columns on application load. In my case the computation would require a lot of calls to Math.log, Math.pow and Math.floor which i'd rather not have to do for load time and battery usage reasons. I mostly work in low power embedded applications in C and as such #4 is what i'm used to doing in these situations. It just seems like it should be far easier to gain access to static data structures in java/android. Perhaps I'm just being too battery usage conscious and in my single case i imagine the answer is that it doesn't matter much, but if every application took that stance it could begin to matter. What approaches do people usually take in this situation? Anything I missed?

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  • C++ Swig Python (Embedded Python in C++) works in Release but not in Debug

    - by sambha
    Platform: Windows 7, 64 bit (x64), Visual Studio 2008 I chose Python & Swig binding as the scripting environment of the application. As a prototype, created a simple VS solution with main() which initializes Python (Py_Initalize, Py_setPyHome, etc) & executes test.py. In the same solution created another project which is a DLL of a simple class. Used SWIG to wrap this class. This DLL is the _MyClasses.pyd. test.py creates the objects of my class & calls its member functions. All this works like a charm in the Release mode. But does not work in Debug mode (even tried banging my head on the laptop ;-) ). Output of my work looks like this (in both release & debug): x64 -debug - _MyClasses.pyd - MyClasses.py - test.exe - test.py - python26.dll - python26_d.dll Note that the debug version is linked against python26_d.lib. Had to build python myself for this! test.py import MyClasses print "ello" m = MyClasses.Male("John Doe", 25) print m.getType() Male is the C++ class. The problem: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 6, in <module> import MyClasses File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 25, in <module> _MyClasses = swig_import_helper() File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 17, in swig_imp ort_helper import _MyClasses ImportError: No module named _MyClasses [15454 refs] I am used to Makefiles & am new to Visual Studio. I dont know who the culprit is here: Swig, The debug build of Python, Visual Studio, my stupidity. Thank you in advance. It will be a great help.

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  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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  • API Wrapper Architecture Best Practice

    - by Adam Taylor
    Hi, So I'm writing a Perl wrapper module around a REST webservice and I'm hoping to have some advice on how best to architect the module. I've been looking at a couple of different Perl modules for inspiration. Flickr::Simple2 - so this is basically one big file with methods wrapping around the different methods in the Flickr API, e.g. getPhotos() etc. Flickr::API - this is a sub-class of another module (LWP) for making HTTP requests. So basically it just allows you to make calls through the module, using LWP, that go to the correct API method/URL without defining any wrapper methods itself. (That's explained pretty poorly - but basically it has a method that takes an argument (a API method name) and constructs the correct API call). e.g request() / response(). An alternative design would be like the first described, but less monolithic, with separate classes for separate "areas" of the API. I'd like to follow modern/best practice Perl methods so I'm using Dist::Zilla to build the module and Moose for the OO stuff but I'd appreciate some input on how to actually design/architect my wrapper. Guides/tutorials or pointers to other well designed modules would be appreciated. Cheers

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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • C# UserControl Validation

    - by Barry
    Hi, I have a UserControl with a Tab Control containing three tabs. Within the tabs are multiple controls - Datetimepickers, textboxes, comboboxes. There is also a Save button which when clicked, calls this.ValidateChildren(ValidationConstraints.Enabled) Now, I click save and a geniune validation error occurs. I correct the error and then click save again - valdiation errors occur on comboboxes on a different tab. If I navigate to this tab and click save, everything works fine. How can this be? I haven't changed any values in the comboboxes so how can the fail validation then pass validation? The comboboxes are bound to a dataset with their selectedValue and Text set. I just don't understand what is happening here. This behaviour also occurs for some textboxes too. The validation rule is that they have to be a decimal - the default value is zero, which is allowed. The same thing happens, they fail validation the first time - I make no changes, click save again and they pass validation. If you need any further information please let me know thanks Barry

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  • Question about SQL Server HierarchyID depth-first performance

    - by AndalusianCat
    I am trying to implement hierarchyID in a table (dbo.[Message]) containing roughly 50,000 rows (will grow substantially in the future). However it takes 30-40 seconds to retrieve about 25 results. The root node is a filler in order to provide uniqueness, therefor every subsequent row is a child of that dummy row. I need to be able to traverse the table depth-first and have made the hierarchyID column (dbo.[Message].MessageID) the clustering primary key, have also added a computed smallint (dbo.[Message].Hierarchy) which stores the level of the node. Usage: A .Net application passes through a hierarchyID value into the database and I want to be able to retrieve all (if any) children AND parents of that node (besides the root, as it is filler). A simplified version of the query I am using: @MessageID hierarchyID /* passed in from application */ SELECT m.MessageID, m.MessageComment FROM dbo.[Message] as m WHERE m.Messageid.IsDescendantOf(@MessageID.GetAncestor((@MessageID.GetLevel()-1))) = 1 ORDER BY m.MessageID From what I understand, the index should be detected automatically without a hint. From searching forums I have seen people utilizing index hints, at least in the case of breadth-first indexes, as apparently CLR calls may be opaque to the query optimizer. I have spent the past few days trying to find a solution for this issue, but to no avail. I would greatly appreciate any assistance, and as this is my first post, I apologize in advance if this would be considered a 'noobish' question, I have read the MS documentation and searched countless forums, but have not came across a succinct description of the specific issue.

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  • Handling Erlang inets http client errors

    - by Justin
    I have an Erlang app which makes a large number of http calls to external sites using inets, using the code below case http:request(get, {Url, []}, [{autoredirect, false}], []) of {ok, {{_, Code, _}, _, Body}}-> case Code of 200 -> HandlerFn(Body); _ -> {error, io:format("~s returned HTTP ~p", [Broker, Code])} end; Response -> %% block to handle unexpected responses from inets {error, io:format("~s returned ~p", [Broker, Response])} end. There is an explicit block to handle anything strange inets might return [Response]. Despite this, I still get what look like inets error reports dumped to the console [sample below]. What am I doing wrong here ? Do I need to configure some kind of inets error handler elsewhere ? Thanks. -- =ERROR REPORT==== 24-Apr-2010::06:49:47 === ** Generic server <0.6618.0 terminating ** Last message in was {connect_and_send, {request,#Ref<0.0.0.139358,<0.6613.0,0,http, {"***",80}, "****************", [],get, {http_request_h,undefined,"keep-alive", undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,"news.bbc.co.uk", undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,[],undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,"0",undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined,[]}, {[],[]}, {http_options,"HTTP/1.1",infinity,false,[], undefined,false,infinity}, "*******************", [],none,[],1272088179114,undefined,undefined}} * When Server state == {state, {request,#Ref<0.0.0.139358,<0.6613.0,0,http, {"********",80}, "***************", [],get, {http_request_h,undefined,"keep-alive", undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,"news.bbc.co.uk", undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,[],undefined,undefined, undefined,undefined,"0",undefined, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, undefined,[]}, {[],[]}, {http_options,"HTTP/1.1",infinity,false,[], undefined,false,infinity}, "**********************", [],none,[],1272088179114,undefined,undefined}, undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined,undefined, {[],[]}, {[],[]}, undefined,[],nolimit,nolimit, {options, {undefined,[]}, 0,2,5,120000,2,disabled,false,inet,default, default,[]}, {timers,[],undefined}, httpc_manager,undefined} ** Reason for termination == ** {error,{connect_failed,{#Ref<0.0.0.139358,{error,nxdomain}}}} =ERROR REPORT==== 24-Apr-2010::06:49:47 === HTTPC-MANAGER handler (<0.6618.0, started) failed to connect and/or send request #Ref<0.0.0.139358 Result: {error,{connect_failed,{#Ref<0.0.0.139358,{error,nxdomain}}}}

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  • Implementing the ‘defer’ statement from Go in Objective-C?

    - by zoul
    Hello! Today I read about the defer statement in the Go language: A defer statement pushes a function call onto a list. The list of saved calls is executed after the surrounding function returns. Defer is commonly used to simplify functions that perform various clean-up actions. I thought it would be fun to implement something like this in Objective-C. Do you have some idea how to do it? I thought about dispatch finalizers, autoreleased objects and C++ destructors. Autoreleased objects: @interface Defer : NSObject {} + (id) withCode: (dispatch_block_t) block; @end @implementation Defer - (void) dealloc { block(); [super dealloc]; } @end #define defer(__x) [Defer withCode:^{__x}] - (void) function { defer(NSLog(@"Done")); … } Autoreleased objects seem like the only solution that would last at least to the end of the function, as the other solutions would trigger when the current scope ends. On the other hand they could stay in the memory much longer, which would be asking for trouble. Dispatch finalizers were my first thought, because blocks live on the stack and therefore I could easily make something execute when the stack unrolls. But after a peek in the documentation it doesn’t look like I can attach a simple “destructor” function to a block, can I? C++ destructors are about the same thing, I would create a stack-based object with a block to be executed when the destructor runs. This would have the ugly disadvantage of turning the plain .m files into Objective-C++? I don’t really think about using this stuff in production, I’m just interested in various solutions. Can you come up with something working, without obvious disadvantages? Both scope-based and function-based solutions would be interesting.

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  • LinkageError thrown when attempting to pass instance of class between 2 eclipse plugins

    - by Ed
    I have found many people with simliar issues but no soultions...basically I have two eclipse plug-ins that both in ther class path rely on the same jar. The UI plug-in replies on the Driver plug-in (implementing a custom ODA driver and UI for it). Both rely on a jar containing some other classes of mine and is called plugin-dto.jar When the UI plug-in calls a method on one of the classes in the Driver plug-in that returns an object whose class is found in the plugin-dto jar I get the error: java.lang.LinkageError: Class com/test/reporting/NrDsDriverProvider violates loader constraints at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:620) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.defineClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:183) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.defineClass(ClasspathManager.java:576) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:546) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:477) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass_LockClassLoader(ClasspathManager.java:465) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass(ClasspathManager.java:445) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.findLocalClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:211) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findLocalClass(BundleLoader.java:381) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClassInternal(BundleLoader.java:457) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:410) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:398) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.loadClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:105) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:251) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:319) Any ideas how I get around this issue? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

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  • HTTP Basic authentication using Authlogic or authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic for API call?

    - by Gaius Parx
    I have a Rails 2.3.x app that implements the act_as_authentic in User model and a UserSession model as per Authlogic Github example. I am implementing an API to allow access from iPhone. Will be using HTTP Basic authentication via https (will not implement single access token). Each API call requires a username/password for the access. I am able to access the API by calling http://username:password@localhost:3000/books.xml for example. Authlogic will not persist if using the single access token. But I am using HTTP Basic which I think Authlogic will create session for the API calls, which is not used for my API methods. So for each API call I made, new session object is created. Thus appear to me that this would load up the server resource pretty quickly. Sounds like a bad idea. The alternative is to use the Rails authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic for API controllers. Example adding a before_filter: def require_http_auth_user authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic do |username, password| if @current_user = User.find_by_email(username) @current_user.valid_password?(password) else false end end end This will bypass the Authlogic UserSession and just use the User model. But this will involve using separate authentication codes in the app. Anyone has any comments and can share their experience? Thanks

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  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

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  • httprequest handle time delays till having response

    - by bourax webmaster
    I have an application that calls a function to send JSON object to a REST API, my problem is how can I handle time delays and repeat this function till i have a response from the server in case of interrupted network connexion ?? I try to use the Handler but i don't know how to stop it when i get a response !!! here's my function that is called when button clicked : protected void sendJson(final String name, final String email, final String homepage,final Long unixTime,final String bundleId) { Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { Looper.prepare(); //For Preparing Message Pool for the child Thread HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(client.getParams(), 10000); //Timeout Limit HttpResponse response; JSONObject json = new JSONObject(); //creating meta object JSONObject metaJson = new JSONObject(); try { HttpPost post = new HttpPost("http://util.trademob.com:5000/cards"); metaJson.put("time", unixTime); metaJson.put("bundleId", bundleId); json.put("name", name); json.put("email", email); json.put("homepage", homepage); //add the meta in the root object json.put("meta", metaJson); StringEntity se = new StringEntity( json.toString()); se.setContentType(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); post.setEntity(se); String authorizationString = "Basic " + Base64.encodeToString( ("tester" + ":" + "tm-sdktest").getBytes(), Base64.NO_WRAP); //Base64.NO_WRAP flag post.setHeader("Authorization", authorizationString); response = client.execute(post); String temp = EntityUtils.toString(response.getEntity()); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), temp, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Looper.loop(); //Loop in the message queue } }; t.start(); }

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  • How to automatically expand html select element in javascript

    - by xan
    I have a (hidden) html select object in my menu attached to a menu button link, so that clicking the link shows the list so you can pick from it. When you click the button, it calls some javascript to show the <select>. Clicking away from the <select> hides the list. What I really want is to make the <select> appear fully expanded, as if you had clicked on the "down" arrow, but I can't get this working. I've tried lots of different approaches, but can't make any headway. What I'm doing currently is this: <li> <a href="javascript:showlist();"><img src="/images/icons/add.png"/>Add favourite</a> <select id="list" style="display:none; onblur="javascript:cancellist()"> </select> </li> // in code function showlist() { //using prototype not jQuery $('list').show(); // shows the select list $('list').focus(); // sets focus so that when you click away it calles onblur() } I've tried calling $('list').click(). I've tried setting onfocus="this.click()" But in both cases I'm getting Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'click' which is peculiar as link text says that it supports the standard functions. I've tried setting the .size = .length which works, but doesn't have the same appearance (as when you click to open the element, it floats over the rest of the page.) Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • iPhone programming - problem with CoreFoundation forking, PLEASE for the love of god help! lol

    - by Tom
    Hello all, I've been working on an iPhone for several months. It's a 2d shooting game akin to the old Smash TV type games. I'm doing everything alone and it has come out well so far, but now I am getting unpredictable crashes which seem to be related to CoreFoundation forking and not exec()ing, as the message THE_PROCESS_HAS_FORKED_AND_YOU_CANNOT_USE_THIS_COREFOUNDATION_FUNCTIONA LITY_YOU_MUST_EXEC__ always shows up somewhere in the debugger. Usually it shows up around a CFRunLoopRunSpecific and is related to either a timer firing or _InitializeTouchTapCount. I cannot figure out exactly what is causing the fork to occur. My main game loop is running on a timer, first updating all the logic and then drawing everything with openGL. There is nothing highly complex or unusual. I understand you cannot make CF calls on the childside of a fork, or access shared memory and things like that. I am not explicitly trying to fork anything. My question is: can anyone tell me what type of activity might cause CoreFoundation to randomly fork like this? I'd really like to finish this game and I don't know how to solve this problem. Thanks for any help.

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