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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • add elements to WPF Grid

    - by Konrad
    I wanted to make a function that populates a Grid in WPF with pictures. So I did that: private void setCellImage(Grid g, Image img, int column, int row) { Grid.SetColumn(img, column); Grid.SetRow(img, row); if (!g.Children.Contains(img)) g.Children.Add(img); g.UpdateLayout(); } And was using it by calling in that way: for (int i = 0; i < 15; i++) for(int j=0; j<15; j++) setCellImage(gameMap,background, i, j); But it wasn't working. it populated a grid only in cell 14,14 leaving all other cells blank. I thought that it may be my mistake that I should use another instances of Image but it wasn't that: private void setCellImage(Grid g, Image img, int column, int row) { Image _img = new Image(); _img = img; Grid.SetColumn(_img, column); Grid.SetRow(_img, row); if (!g.Children.Contains(_img)) g.Children.Add(_img); g.UpdateLayout(); } This thing is still not working.

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  • Looped jQuery slideshow with smooth cross-fades

    - by artlung
    I'm trying to do a simple rotating image on the home page. Under the hood I'm reading a directory and then populating urls for the images into an array. What I want to do is cross-fade the images. If it was just a matter of showing the next one, it's easy, but since I need to cross-fade, it's a bit harder. I think what I want to do is do the fades by calling animate() on the opacity value of the <img> tag, and in between swapping out the css background-image property of the enclosing <div>. But the results are not that great. I've used tools for more full featured slideshows, but I don't want the overhead of adding a plugin if I can avoid it, and a simple crossfade seems like it should be easier. Here's my JavaScript (I'm using jQuery 1.3.2): var slideshow_images = ["http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg1.jpg","http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg2.jpg","http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg3.jpg"]; var slideshow_index = 0; var delay = 4000; var swapSlides = function() { var slideshow_count = slideshow_images.length; // initialize the background to be the current image $('#home-slideshow').css({ 'background-image': 'url(' + slideshow_images[slideshow_index] + ')', 'background-repeat:': 'no-repeat', 'width': 200, 'overflow': 'hidden' }); slideshow_index = ((slideshow_index + 1) == slideshow_count) ? 0 : slideshow_index + 1; // fade out the img $('#home-slideshow img').animate({opacity: 0}, delay); // now, the background is visible // next change the url on the img $('#home-slideshow img').attr('src', slideshow_images[slideshow_index]); // and fade it up $('#home-slideshow img').animate({opacity: 1.0}, delay); // do it again setTimeout('swapSlides()', 4000); } jQuery(document).ready(function(){ if (swapSlides) { swapSlides(); } }); And here's the markup I'm using: <div id="home-slideshow"><img src="http://example.com/wordpress/wp-content/themes/testtheme/sidebar-home-bg/bg1.jpg" alt="" /></div>

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  • HTTP Basic authentication using Authlogic or authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic for API call?

    - by Gaius Parx
    I have a Rails 2.3.x app that implements the act_as_authentic in User model and a UserSession model as per Authlogic Github example. I am implementing an API to allow access from iPhone. Will be using HTTP Basic authentication via https (will not implement single access token). Each API call requires a username/password for the access. I am able to access the API by calling http://username:password@localhost:3000/books.xml for example. Authlogic will not persist if using the single access token. But I am using HTTP Basic which I think Authlogic will create session for the API calls, which is not used for my API methods. So for each API call I made, new session object is created. Thus appear to me that this would load up the server resource pretty quickly. Sounds like a bad idea. The alternative is to use the Rails authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic for API controllers. Example adding a before_filter: def require_http_auth_user authenticate_or_request_with_http_basic do |username, password| if @current_user = User.find_by_email(username) @current_user.valid_password?(password) else false end end end This will bypass the Authlogic UserSession and just use the User model. But this will involve using separate authentication codes in the app. Anyone has any comments and can share their experience? Thanks

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  • How do you invoke a python script inside a jar file using python ?

    - by Trevor
    I'm working on an application that intersperses a bunch of jython and java code. Due to the nature of the program (using wsadmin) we are really restricted to Python 2.1 We currently have a jar containing both java source and .py modules. The code is currently invoked using java, but I'd like to remove this in favor of migrating as much functionality as possible to jython. The problem I have is that I want to either import or execute python modules inside the existing jar file from a calling jython script. I've tried a couple of different ways without success. My directory structure looks like: application.jar |-- com |--example |-- action |-- MyAction.class |-- pre_myAction.py The 1st approach I tried was to do imports from the jar. I added the jar to my sys.path and tried to import the module using both import com.example.action.myAction and import myAction. No success however, even when I put init.py files into the directory at each level. The 2nd approach I tried was to load the resource using the java class. So I wrote the below code: import sys import os import com.example.action.MyAction as MyAction scriptName = str(MyAction.getResource('/com/example/action/myAction.py')) scriptStr = MyAction.getResourceAsStream('/com/example/action/myAction.py') try: print execfile(scriptStr) except: print "failed 1" try: print execfile(scriptName) except: print "failed 2" Both of these failed. I'm at a bit of a loss now as to how I should proceed. Any ideas ? cheers, Trevor

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  • Call Multiple Stored Procedures with the Zend Framework

    - by Brian Fisher
    I'm using Zend Framework 1.7.2, MySQL and the MySQLi PDO adapter. I would like to call multiple stored procedures during a given action. I've found that on Windows there is a problem calling multiple stored procedures. If you try it you get the following error message: SQLSTATE[HY000]: General error: 2014 Cannot execute queries while other unbuffered queries are active. Consider using PDOStatement::fetchAll(). Alternatively, if your code is only ever going to run against mysql, you may enable query buffering by setting the PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_USE_BUFFERED_QUERY attribute. I found that to work around this issue I could just close the connection to the database after each call to a stored procedure: if (strtoupper(substr(PHP_OS, 0, 3)) === 'WIN') { //If on windows close the connection $db->closeConnection(); } This has worked well for me, however, now I want to call multiple stored procedures wrapped in a transaction. Of course, closing the connection isn't an option in this situation, since it causes a rollback of the open transaction. Any ideas, how to fix this problem and/or work around the issue. More info about the work around Bug report about the problem

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  • Exclude string from wildcard in bash

    - by Peter O'Doherty
    Hi, I'm trying to adapt a bash script from "Sams' Teach Yourself Linux in 24 Hours" which is a safe delete command called rmv. The files are removed by calling rmv -d file1 file2 etc. In the original script a max of 4 files can by removed using the variables $1 $2 $3 $4. I want to extend this to an unlimited number of files by using a wildcard. So I do: for i in $* do mv $i $HOME/.trash done The files are deleted okay but the option -d of the command rmv -d is also treated as an argument and bash objects that it cannot be found. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks, Peter #!/bin/bash # rmv - a safe delete program # uses a trash directory under your home directory mkdir $HOME/.trash 2>/dev/null # four internal script variables are defined cmdlnopts=false delete=false empty=false list=false # uses getopts command to look at command line for any options while getopts "dehl" cmdlnopts; do case "$cmdlnopts" in d ) /bin/echo "deleting: \c" $2 $3 $4 $5 ; delete=true ;; e ) /bin/echo "emptying the trash..." ; empty=true ;; h ) /bin/echo "safe file delete v1.0" /bin/echo "rmv -d[elete] -e[mpty] -h[elp] -l[ist] file1-4" ;; l ) /bin/echo "your .trash directory contains:" ; list=true ;; esac done if [ $delete = true ] then for i in $* do mv $i $HOME/.trash done /bin/echo "rmv finished." fi if [ $empty = true ] then /bin/echo "empty the trash? \c" read answer case "$answer" in y) rm -i $HOME/.trash/* ;; n) /bin/echo "trashcan delete aborted." ;; esac fi if [ $list = true ] then ls -l $HOME/.trash fi

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  • Invoking WCF service from Javascript

    - by KhanS
    I have a asp.net web application, and have some java script code in it. While calling the service I am getting the exception Service1 is undefined. Below is my code. Service: namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the interface name "IService1" in both code and config file together. [ServiceContract(Namespace="WCFServices")] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string HelloWorld(); } } Implementation namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the class name "Service1" in code, svc and config file together. [ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class Service1 : IService1 { public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello world from service"; } } } ASPX page: <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="QNAScriptManager" runat="server"> <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/Service1.svc" /> </Services> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/Scripts/Questions.js" /> </Scripts> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> Java Script var ServiceProxy; function pageLoad() { ServiceProxy = new Service1(); ServiceProxy.set_defaultSucceededCallback(SucceededCallback); } function GetString() { ServiceProxy.HelloWorld(); } function SucceededCallback(result, userContext, methodName) { var RsltElem = document.getElementById("Results"); RsltElem.innerHTML = result + " from " + methodName + "."; alert("Msg received from service"); }

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  • How to create a variadic (with variable length argument list) function wrapper in JavaScript

    - by U-D13
    The intention is to build a wrapper to provide a consistent method of calling native functions with variable arity on various script hosts - so that the script could be executed in a browser as well as in the Windows Script Host or other script engines. I am aware of 3 methods of which each one has its own drawbacks. eval() method: function wrapper () { var str = ''; for (var i=0; i<arguments.lenght; i++) str += (str ?', ':'') + ',arguments['+i+']'; return eval('[native_function] ('+str+')'); } switch() method: function wrapper () { switch (arguments.lenght) { case 0: return [native_function] (arguments[0]); break; case 1: return [native_function] (arguments[0], arguments[1]); break; ... case n: return [native_function] (arguments[0], arguments[1], ... arguments[n]); } } apply() method: function wrapper () { return [native_function].apply([native_function_namespace], arguments); } What's wrong with them you ask? Well, shall we delve into all the reasons why eval() is evil? And also all the string concatenation... Not a solution to be labeled "elegant". One can never know the maximum n and thus how many cases to prepare. This also would strech the script to immense proportions and sin against the holy DRY principle. The script could get executed on older (pre- JavaScript 1.3 / ECMA-262-3) engines that don't support the apply() method. Now the question part: is there any another solution out there?

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  • php refresh on 2nd page refresh

    - by cnotethegr8
    i have this function that gives me an output of a number. (the number is my total amount of downloads from my iphone themes.) because the code has to make so many requests, it loads the page very slowly. what would be the best way for me to go about the code loading into a variable and than calling it on the second page refresh. so it dosnt take so long to load? or any other method will do. i just want it to not take so long to load! also this isnt on my server so i cant use $.ajax <?php function all_downloads() { $allThemes = array( 'com.modmyi.batterytheme', 'com.modmyi.connectiontheme', 'com.modmyi.icontheme', 'com.modmyi.percenttheme', 'com.modmyi.statusnotifiertheme', 'com.modmyi.cnote', 'com.modmyi.iaccescnotekb', 'com.modmyi.cnotelite', 'com.modmyi.multibrowsericon', 'com.modmyi.changeappstoreiconwithinstallous' ); $total = 0; foreach($allThemes as $com_modmyi){ $theme = file_get_contents( "http://modmyi.com/cstats/index.php?package=".$com_modmyi.'&output=number'); $theme = str_replace(",","", $theme); $almost_done += $theme; $rock_your_phone = 301; //From c-note and Multi Lock Screen Theme on Rock Your Phone $total = ($almost_done + $rock_your_phone); } echo number_format($total); } ?>

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  • How to automatically expand html select element in javascript

    - by xan
    I have a (hidden) html select object in my menu attached to a menu button link, so that clicking the link shows the list so you can pick from it. When you click the button, it calls some javascript to show the <select>. Clicking away from the <select> hides the list. What I really want is to make the <select> appear fully expanded, as if you had clicked on the "down" arrow, but I can't get this working. I've tried lots of different approaches, but can't make any headway. What I'm doing currently is this: <li> <a href="javascript:showlist();"><img src="/images/icons/add.png"/>Add favourite</a> <select id="list" style="display:none; onblur="javascript:cancellist()"> </select> </li> // in code function showlist() { //using prototype not jQuery $('list').show(); // shows the select list $('list').focus(); // sets focus so that when you click away it calles onblur() } I've tried calling $('list').click(). I've tried setting onfocus="this.click()" But in both cases I'm getting Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'click' which is peculiar as link text says that it supports the standard functions. I've tried setting the .size = .length which works, but doesn't have the same appearance (as when you click to open the element, it floats over the rest of the page.) Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Where should 'CreateMap' statements go?

    - by jonathanconway
    I frequently use AutoMapper to map Model (Domain) objects to ViewModel objects, which are then consumed by my Views, in a Model/View/View-Model pattern. This involves many 'Mapper.CreateMap' statements, which all must be executed, but must only be executed once in the lifecycle of the application. Technically, then, I should keep them all in a static method somewhere, which gets called from my Application_Start() method (this is an ASP.NET MVC application). However, it seems wrong to group a lot of different mapping concerns together in one central location. Especially when mapping code gets complex and involves formatting and other logic. Is there a better way to organize the mapping code so that it's kept close to the ViewModel that it concerns? (I came up with one idea - having a 'CreateMappings' method on each ViewModel, and in the BaseViewModel, calling this method on instantiation. However, since the method should only be called once in the application lifecycle, it needs some additional logic to cache a list of ViewModel types for which the CreateMappings method has been called, and then only call it when necessary, for ViewModels that aren't in that list.)

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  • PHP/JQuery/AJAX, few teething problems...

    - by thebluefox
    Morning/Afternoon guys. Writing some JQuery AJAX shizz and getting a bit stuck. I've got the actual proccess of calling the php file done perfectly, its just trying to get the html on the page to change in a way I want it to. I want to get rid of the a with the id of the one used in the ajax call etc, and replace it with the html passed from the PHP file. Code is as follows... $(".save_places").click(function() { $.ajax({ url: "{/literal}{$sRootPath}{literal}system/ajax/fan_bus.php", type: "POST", data: ({id : this.getAttribute('id')}), dataType: "html", success: function(msg){ $(this).before(msg); $(this).empty(); alert(msg); } }); return false; }); And the HTML is pretty simple; <p class="links"> <a href="#" class="save_places" id="bus_{$businesses.results[bus].id}_{$sMemberDetails.id}"><img src="{$sThemePath}images/save_places.png" alt="Save to My Places" /></a> <a href="#"><img src="{$sThemePath}images/send_friend.png" alt="Send to a Friend" /></a> </p> All the stuff in the success function is experimental mashing of code, any help please? Thanks as always.

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  • managed beans as managed properties

    - by Sean
    I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

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  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

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  • Entity Framework lazy loading doesn't work from other thread

    - by Thomas Levesque
    Hi, I just found out that lazy loading in Entity Framework only works from the thread that created the ObjectContext. To illustrate the problem, I did a simple test, with a simple model containing just 2 entities : Person and Address. Here's the code : private static void TestSingleThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p.Name, p.Address.City); } } } private static void TestMultiThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Person p2 = p; // to avoid capturing the loop variable ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( arg => { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p2.Name, p2.Address.City); }); } } } The TestSingleThread method works fine, the Address property is lazily loaded. But in TestMultiThread, I get a NullReferenceException on p2.Address.City, because p2.Address is null. It that a bug ? Is this the way it's supposed to work ? If so, is there any documentation mentioning it ? I couldn't find anything on the subject on MSDN or Google... And more importantly, is there a workaround ? (other than explicitly calling LoadProperty from the worker thread...) Any help would be very appreciated PS: I'm using VS2010, so it's EF 4.0. I don't know if it was the same in the previous version of EF...

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  • Subview Doesnt AutoSize When Added to Root View Controller

    - by Per
    Hello, I have a root view controller that will have up to 10 or so subviews. I am implementing autorotation/autosize accross the entire app. My problem is this: - When I allocate all the view controllers and add each as a subview to the root controller during startup, everything works as it should. The only problem is that each view controller needs time to initialize. This causes my application to load very slowly. Instead I am trying to allocate the view controllers as they are required. Now I find that if the application goes into Landscape, and I allocate a view controller that is designed in portrait, it will autorotate but the autosize doesnt happen. In other words as soon as the subview is added to the root controller in portrait mode it rotates and sizes correctly (and stays that way). If the subview is added when the root controller is in landscape it rotates but doesnt autosize (and view sizes remain messed up rotating back to portrait) I have tried to force an autosize by calling SetNeedsLayout, SetNeedsDisplay, and LayoutIfNeeded but nothing works. I know i could probably do this manually by determining the root controllers orientation and resizing the subviews appropriately, but this is a lot of work for something that should work automatically. Am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated. My project is an iPad port from an iPhone app, the iPhone app doesnt rotate so Im not sure if this may be something wrong with the 3.2 beta.

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  • Core data and @unionOfSets

    - by KevinD
    Im having trouble using the @unionOfSets on my core-data objects. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement"]); Prints the set of listElements as expected 2010-03-24 18:11:15.844 Pirouette[7459:80f] Relationship objects for {( (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a71b0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10ac7d0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10acf60 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a6850 ; data: ) However when I try to get the set of file objects for each of the list elements. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement.@unionOfArrays.file"]); I get the following error 2010-03-24 18:16:45.843 Pirouette[7505:80f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-03-24 18:16:45.844 Pirouette[7505:80f] [<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation. 2010-03-24 18:16:45.847 Pirouette[7505:80f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '[<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation.' Confused because I thought calling to-many relationships in core-data were NSSets.

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  • How do I use an SWT Control to render the content of an SWT/JFace table?

    - by jastram
    I have a JFace TableViewer with an SWT Table, and I would like to custom render the content of some cells. I would like to use an SWT Control to render the cell content. I would prefer to have only one instance of the Control doing the rendering, but if I have to instantiate one for each row, that would be acceptable. Next, the solution MUST be compatible with the ContentProvider/LabelProvider approach (I am using EMF). This means that I cannot use the solution described in Sniplet 126 (http://dev.eclipse.org/viewcvs/index.cgi/org.eclipse.swt.snippets). Next, I though about using custom drawing. But here the catch is, that I have to send individual drawing operations to the graphics context. I was trying to have the Control render the content for me by calling redraw() or print(GC) upon SWT.PaintItem, but that just lead to uncontrollable flickering. At this point, my best guess is to use SWT.PaintItem to do the drawing. This will result in duplicate code, as I already have a Control that can render the content the way I'd like it. I'd like to prevent this redundancy. Any help is appreciated!

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  • WinForms data binding with a Save button?

    - by Mat
    How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

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  • Binary file email attachment problem

    - by Alan Harris-Reid
    Hi there, Using Python 3.1.2 I am having a problem sending binary attachment files (jpeg, pdf, etc.) - MIMEText attachments work fine. The code in question is as follows... for file in self.attachments: part = MIMEBase('application', "octet-stream") part.set_payload(open(file,"rb").read()) encoders.encode_base64(part) part.add_header('Content-Disposition', 'attachment; filename="%s"' % file) msg.attach(part) # msg is an instance of MIMEMultipart() server = smtplib.SMTP(host, port) server.login(username, password) server.sendmail(from_addr, all_recipients, msg.as_string()) However, way down in the calling-stack (see traceback below), it looks as though msg.as_string() has received an attachment which creates a payload of 'bytes' type instead of string. Has anyone any idea what might be causing the problem? Any help would be appreciated. Alan builtins.TypeError: string payload expected: File "c:\Dev\CommonPY\Scripts\email_send.py", line 147, in send server.sendmail(self.from_addr, all_recipients, msg.as_string()) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\message.py", line 136, in as_string g.flatten(self, unixfrom=unixfrom) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 76, in flatten self._write(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 101, in _write self._dispatch(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 127, in _dispatch meth(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 181, in _handle_multipart g.flatten(part, unixfrom=False) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 76, in flatten self._write(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 101, in _write self._dispatch(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 127, in _dispatch meth(msg) File "c:\Program Files\Python31\Lib\email\generator.py", line 155, in _handle_text raise TypeError('string payload expected: %s' % type(payload))

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  • How to convert an InputStream to a DataHandler?

    - by pcorey
    I'm working on a java web application in which files will be stored in a database. Originally we retrieved files already in the DB by simply calling getBytes on our result set: byte[] bytes = resultSet.getBytes(1); ... This byte array was then converted into a DataHandler using the obvious constructor: dataHandler=new DataHandler(bytes,"application/octet-stream"); This worked great until we started trying to store and retrieve larger files. Dumping the entire file contents into a byte array and then building a DataHandler out of that simply requires too much memory. My immediate idea is to retrieve a stream of the data in the database with getBinaryStream and somehow convert that InputStream into a DataHandler in a memory-efficient way. Unfortunately it doesn't seem like there's a direct way to convert an InputStream into a DataHandler. Another idea I've been playing with is reading chunks of data from the InputStream and writing them to the OutputStream of the DataHandler. But... I can't find a way to create an "empty" DataHandler that returns a non-null OutputStream when I call getOutputStream... Has anyone done this? I'd appreciate any help you can give me or leads in the right direction.

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  • IPhone custom UITableViewCell Reloading

    - by Steblo
    Hi, currently I'm struggling with this problem: I got a UITableViewController that displays a tableView with different custom cells. One custom cell displays a number (by a label). If you click on this cell, the navigationController moves to a UIPicker where the user can select the number to be displayes. If the user moves back, the cell should display the updated value. Problem: I managed to reload the cells by calling - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } in the UITableViewController. This works only, if I don't use dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier for the cell (tables won't show updates otherwise). But in this case, memory usage grows and grows... In addition, the program crashes after about 15 movements to pickerView and back - I think because the cell that should be reloaded is already released. How can I update a reusable custom cell every time the view appears ? What is the best solution ? I think retaining cells should not be used ?

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  • External API function calls AS3 control timeline

    - by giles
    I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

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  • Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

    - by Chris
    Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

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