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• WinForms data binding with a Save button?

  - by Mat

  How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

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• Single value data to multiple values of data in database relation

  - by Sofiane Merah

  I have such a hard time picturing this. I just don't have the brain to do it. I have a table called reports. --------------------------------------------- | report_id | set_of_bads | field1 | field2 | --------------------------------------------- | 123 | set1 | qwe | qwe | --------------------------------------------- | 321 | 123112 | ewq | ewq | --------------------------------------------- I have another table called bads. This table contains a list of bad data. ------------------------------------- | bad_id | set_it_belongs_to | field2 | field3 | ------------------------------------- | 1 | set1 | qwe | qwe | ------------------------------------- | 2 | set1 | qee | tte | ------------------------------------- | 3 | set1 | q44w | 3qwe | ------------------------------------- | 4 | 234 | qoow | 3qwe | ------------------------------------- Now I have set the first field of every table as the primary key. My question is, how do I connect the field set_of_bads to set_it_belongs_to in the bads table. This way if I want to get the entire set of data that is set1 by calling on the reports table I can do it. Example: hey reports table.. bring up the row that has the report_id 123. Okay thank you.. Now get all the rows from bads that has the set_of_bads value from the row with the report_id 123. Thanks.

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• Efficiently Determine if EF 4 POCO Already in ObjectSet

  - by Eric J.

  I'm trying EF 4 with POCO's on a small project for the first time. In my Repository implementation, I want to provide a method AddOrUpdate that will add a passed-in POCO to the repository if it's new, else do nothing (as the updated POCO will be saved when SaveChanges is called). My first thought was to do this: public void AddOrUpdate(Poco p) { if (!Ctx.Pocos.Contains<Poco>(p)) { Ctx.Pocos.AddObject(p); } } However that results in a NotSupportedException as documented under Referencing Non-Scalar Variables Not Supported (bonus question: why would that not be supported?) Just removing the Contains part and always calling AddObject results in an InvalidStateException: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The existing object is in the Unchanged state. An object can only be added to the ObjectStateManager again if it is in the added state. So clearly EF 4 knows somewhere that this is a duplicate based on the key. What's a clean, efficient way for the Repository to update Pocos for either a new or pre-existing object when AddOrUpdate is called so that the subsequent call to SaveChanges() will do the right thing? I did consider carrying an isNew flag on the object itself, but I'm trying to take persistence ignorance as far as practical.

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• Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

  - by Chris

  Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

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• Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

  - by zengr

  I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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• Can NSCollectionView autoresize the width of its subviews to display one column

  - by littlecharva

  Hi, I have an NSCollectionView that contains a collection of CustomViews. Initially it tiled the subviews into columns and rows like a grid. I then set the Columns property in IB to 1, so now it just displays them one after another in rows. However, even though my CustomView is 400px wide, it's set to autoresize, the NSCollectionView is 400px wide, and it's set to 1 column, the subviews are drawn about 80px wide. I know I can get around this by calling: CGFloat width = [collectionView bounds].size.width; NSSize size = NSMakeSize(width, 85); [collectionView setMinItemSize:size]; [collectionView setMaxItemSize:size]; But putting this code in the awakeFromNib method of my WindowController only sets the correct width when the program launches. When I resize the window (and the NSCollectionView autoresizes as I've specified), the CustomViews stay at their initially set width. I'm happy to take care of resizing the subviews myself if need be, but I'm quite new to Cocoa and can't seem to find any articles explaining how to do such a thing. Can someone point me in the right direction? Anthony

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• Big sinatra problems

  - by Joel M.

  Hi, So I'm having huge trouble with sinatra. Here's what I have: require 'dm-core' DataMapper.setup(:default, ENV['DATABASE_URL'] || 'sqlite3://my.db') class Something include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :thing, Text property :run_in, Integer property :added_at, DateTime property :to, String def schedule cronify(self.thing+" to "+self.to, "http://url"+self.id.to_s, self.run_in) end def notify text(self.thing, self.to) end end Something.auto_upgrade! The cronify method works. I tested it in irb. Also, the schedule instance method works, I tested it in the console. However, it doesn't work in the route, even though it works in the console. post '/add' do @something = Something.create(blah) #this works fine @something.schedule #this works fine in the console; not in the route. end I've tried everything, from @something.create(blah).schedule (which also works fine in the console, but not in the route), to defining the method cronify inside the sinatra helpers, and even calling cronify directly on the route. Nothing works on the route. What am I doing wrong?

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• How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

  - by markerikson

  I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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• By using " editingStyleForRowAtIndexPath " method , " didSelectRowAtIndexPath " method is not calle

  - by Madan Mohan

  Hi, the delegate method not called -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [theTableView setEditing:TRUE animated:TRUE]; } -(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView editingStyleForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete; } by calling the above the methods i will get minus component before each cell in table view. But the below method didSelectRowAtIndexPath is not called and disclouser indicator is not in visible. (void )tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [theTableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; ContactEditViewCotroller *contactEditViewCotroller=[[ContactEditViewCotroller alloc]init]; contactEditViewCotroller.isEdit=isEdit; if(isEdit == YES) { for(int i=0; i<=[editObject.contactList count]-1;i++) { if(indexPath.section == i) { appDelegate.isAddInEdit=NO; editcontacts = [editObject.contactList objectAtIndex:i]; contactEditViewCotroller.editcontacts=editcontacts; indexRow=i; } } } else { for(int i=0; i<=[addContactList count]-1;i++) { if(indexPath.section == i) { appDelegate.isAddInEdit=NO; Contacts *obj = [addContactList objectAtIndex:i]; contactEditViewCotroller.addcontacts=obj; } } } [[self navigationController] pushViewController:contactEditViewCotroller animated:YES]; [contactEditViewCotroller release]; }

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• How Random is System.Guid.NewGuid()? (Take two)

  - by Vilx-

  Before you start marking this as a duplicate, read me out. The other question has a (most likely) incorrect accepted answer. I do not know how .NET generates its GUIDs, probably only Microsoft does, but there's a high chance it simply calls CoCreateGuid(). That function however is documented to be calling UuidCreate(). And the algorithms for creating an UUID are pretty well documented. Long story short, be as it may, it seems that System.Guid.NewGuid() indeed uses version 4 UUID generation algorithm, because all the GUIDs it generates matches the criteria (see for yourself, I tried a couple million GUIDs, they all matched). In other words, these GUIDs are almost random, except for a few known bits. This then again raises the question - how random IS this random? As every good little programmer knows, a pseudo-random number algorithm is only as random as its seed (aka entropy). So what is the seed for UuidCreate()? How ofter is the PRNG re-seeded? Is it cryptographically strong, or can I expect the same GUIDs to start pouring out if two computers accidentally call System.Guid.NewGuid() at the same time? And can the state of the PRNG be guessed if sufficiently many sequentially generated GUIDs are gathered?

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• WTK emulator bluetooth connection problem

  - by Gokhan B.

  Hi! I'm developing a J2ME program with eclipse / WTK 2.5.2 and having problem with connecting two emulators using bluetooth. There is one server and one .client running on two different emulators. The problem is client program cannot discover any bluetooth device. Here is the server and client codes: public Server() { try { LocalDevice local = LocalDevice.getLocalDevice(); local.setDiscoverable(DiscoveryAgent.GIAC); server = (StreamConnectionNotifier) Connector.open("btspp://localhost:" + UUID_STRING + ";name=" + SERVICE_NAME); Util.Log("EchoServer() Server connector open!"); } catch (Exception e) {} } after calling Connector.open, I get following warning in console, which i believe is related: Warning: Unregistered device: unspecified and client code that searches for devices: public SearchForDevices(String uuid, String nm) { UUIDStr = uuid; srchServiceName = nm; try { LocalDevice local = LocalDevice.getLocalDevice(); agent = local.getDiscoveryAgent(); deviceList = new Vector(); agent.startInquiry(DiscoveryAgent.GIAC, this); // non-blocking } catch (Exception e) {} } system never calls deviceDiscovered, but calls inquiryCompleted() with INQUIRY_COMPLETED paramter, so I suppose client program runs fine. Bluetooth is enabled at emulator settings.. any ideas ?

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• Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

  - by Seeker

  Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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• How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

  - by Marcus Netter

  I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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• jQuery ajax call doesn't seem to do anything at all

  - by icemanind

  I am having a problem with making an ajax call in jQuery. Having done this a million times, I know I am missing something really silly here. Here is my javascript code for making the ajax call: function editEmployee(id) { $('#<%= imgNewEmployeeWait.ClientID %>').hide(); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog input[type=text]').val(''); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog select option:first-child').attr("selected", "selected"); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog').dialog('open'); $('#createEditEmployeeId').text(id); var inputEmp = {}; inputEmp.id = id; var jsonInputEmp = JSON.stringify(inputEmp); debugger; alert('Before Ajax Call!'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Configuration.aspx/GetEmployee", data: jsonInputEmp, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { alert('success'); }, error: function (msg) { alert('failure'); } }); } Here is my CS code that is trying to be called: [WebMethod] public static string GetEmployee(int id) { var employee = new Employee(id); return Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(employee, Newtonsoft.Json.Formatting.Indented); } When I try to run this, I do get the alert that says Before Ajax Call!. However, I never get an alert back that says success or an alert that says failure. I did go into my CS code and put a breakpoint on the GetEmployee method. The breakpoint did hit, so I know jQuery is successfully calling the method. I stepped through the method and it executed just fine with no errors. I can only assume the error is happening when the jQuery ajax call is returning from the call. Also, I looked in my event logs just to make sure there wasn't an ASPX error occurring. There is no error in the logs. I also looked at the console. There are no script errors. Anyone have any ideas what I am missing here? `

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• Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

  - by WizardOfOdds

  Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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• Forking in PHP on Windows

  - by Doug Kavendek

  We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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• Embedding two slideshows

  - by Jennifer Heidelberg

  Hello, I am trying to embedd two slideshows into my flash file. I already managed to integrate one, but I can't integrate another since my knowledge of actionscript is very limited. For people that know Flash well it is a really easy question. What do I have to rename in this script so that I can create a second slideshow, without always calling on the first one. Here is the script for the first slideshow: (I got it from the website where I bought the template for the slideshow from) var loader:Loader = new Loader(); var monoslideshow:Object; loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.CO MPLETE, onLoadComplete); addChild(loader); loader.load(new URLRequest("monoslideshow.swf")); function onLoadComplete(event:Event):void { monoslideshow = event.target.content; monoslideshow.showLogo = false; monoslideshow.setViewport(new Rectangle(730, 20, 700, 660)); var xml:XML = monoslideshow.loadXML(xml); } Thank you very much in advance!! Aylin

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• How can I terminate a system command with alarm in Perl?

  - by rockyurock

  I am running the below code snippet on Windows. The server starts listening continuously after reading from client. I want to terminate this command after a time period. If I use alarm() function call within main.pl, then it terminates the whole Perl program (here main.pl), so I called this system command by placing it in a separate Perl file and calling this Perl file (alarm.pl) in the original Perl File using the system command. But in this way I was unable to take the output of this system() call neither in the original Perl File nor in called one Perl File. Could anybody please let me know the way to terminate a system() call or take the output in that way I used above? main.pl my @output = system("alarm.pl"); print"one iperf completed\n"; open FILE, ">display.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output_1; close FILE; alarm.pl alarm 30; my @output_1 = readpipe("adb shell cd /data/app; ./iperf -u -s -p 5001"); open FILE, ">display.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output_1; close FILE; In both ways display.txt is always empty.

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• HttpHandler and XML files

  - by Frank

  Hello, I would like to intercept any request made to the server for XML files. I thought that it might be possible with an HttpHandler. It's coded and it works... on localhost only (?!?!). So, why is it working on localhost only? Here is my web.config <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.xml" type="FooBar.XmlHandler, FooBar" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </configuration> Here is my C# : namespace FooBar { public class XmlHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpResponse Response = context.Response; Response.Write(xmlString); } } } As you might have seen, I'm writing the xmlString directly in the response, it's only temporary because I'm still wondering how I could give the filename instead (that's the second question ;) ) What is supposed to be written in the response is only the xml filename that will be retrieved by a flash app. Thanks Edit : When calling the page from another computer it looks like it's not getting to the HttpHandler. However, the mapping for IIS have been done correctly.

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• WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

  - by Wade D Ouellet

  Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

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• Best practice when using WebMethods and session

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I want to reduce postback in one of my application page and use ajax instead. I used the WebMethod to do so.. I have a static WebMethod that needs to access the session variables and modify. and on the client side, i am calling this method using jQuery. I tried accessing the session as follows: [WebMethod] public static void TestWebMethod() { if (HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"] != null) { log.Debug("Using the existing list"); Product prod = (Product)HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"]; List<Configs> confs = cart.GetConfigs(); foreach (Configs citem in confis) { log.Info(citem.Description); } } log.Info("Inside the method!"); } The values are displayed correctly and seems to work.. but i would like to know if this practice is allowed as the method is a static methods and would like to know how it will behave if multiple people access the application. I would also like to know how developers do these kind of tasks in ASP if this is not the right method. Thanks in advance for your suggestions and ideas, Abdel Olakara

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• Java Error beeping

  - by user1281385

  Im working on a Chat client that i didnt write the bulk of the code for. It works fine however when someone sends a message it beeps (system error beep) when using Java 7. Java 6 and below doesn't have this beep. I cant seem to find whats causing the beep is there any way to find it ? I dont think its calling beep as i have public class nobeep extends sun.awt.windows.WToolkit { @Override public void beep() { System.out.println("tried to beep"); new Exception().printStackTrace(); } } and then called System.setProperty("awt.toolkit", "nobeep"); in the main method. Using the method to send a beep doesnt make it beep. Its only when sent normally. Is there a quick way to track down the cause of the beep ? Edit: After looking in the bugs database - its confirmed. http://bugs.sun.com/bugdatabase/view_bug.do?bug_id=7194469 I know it says no work around but is there one (java not c++) or just wait until update 8 ?

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• Which Django 1.2.x multilingual application to use?

  - by mawimawi

  There are a couple of different applications for internationalized content in Django. As of now I only have used http://code.google.com/p/django-multilingual/ in my production environments, but I wonder if there are "better" solutions for my wishes. What my staff users need is the following: An object is being created by a staff user in any language (e.g. "de") This object should be displayed in the german version of the website. When a staff user translates the object into a different language (e.g. "fr"), then the page must be visible in the french version as well. If an object is not translated in the visitor's currently selected language (e.g. "en"), then calling the objects url shall raise a 404 Error (or even better a notice that the object is only available in the languages "de" and "fr", and the visitor might be able to select one of the languages) My staff users are working in the admin interface, so the multilingual application must support this as well. I don't really care whether the multilingual app uses a single table with many fields (like title_en, title_de, title_fr) or a foreign key to a related table (as it is implemented in django-multlingual). I only want it to have a good admin interface and no "default" language, because some content might be available just in "de", and some other just in "fr" and "en". And the most important issue of course is compatibility with Django 1.2.x. What are your experiences and preferred apps, and why?

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• JScrollPane Scrolls Down with Long Text in JEditorPane

  - by Jim

  Hello, I want to have a JEditorPane inside a JScrollPane. When the user clicks a button, the click listener will create a textEditor, call jscrollpane.setViewPort(textEditor), call textEditor.setText(String) to fill it with editable text, and call jscrollpane.getVerticalScrollBar().setValue(0). In case you're wondering, yes, the setText() must come after the setViewPort() for reasons that aren't on topic. Here is the problem: After the user clicks the button, the JScrollPane's view scrolls all the way to the bottom. I want the scrollbar to be at the top, as per the last line in my click listener. I popped open a debugger, and to my horror, discovered that the jscrollpane's viewport is being forced down to the bottom after the conclusion of the click listener (when pumping filters). It appears that Swing is delaying the population of the editor/jscrollpane until after the conclusion of the clicklistener, but is calling the scrollbar command first. Thus, the undesired behavior. Anyway, I'm wondering if there is a clean solution. It seems that wanting a scrollpane to be scrolled to the top after modification would be a reasonably common requirement, so I'm assuming this is a well-solved problem. Thanks!

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• Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

  - by aioobe

  I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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