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  • C# Static constructors design problem - need to specify parameter

    - by Neil Dobson
    I have a re-occurring design problem with certain classes which require one-off initialization with a parameter such as the name of an external resource such as a config file. For example, I have a corelib project which provides application-wide logging, configuration and general helper methods. This object could use a static constructor to initialize itself but it need access to a config file which it can't find itself. I can see a couple of solutions, but both of these don't seem quite right: 1) Use a constructor with a parameter. But then each object which requires corelib functionality should also know the name of the config file, so this has to be passed around the application. Also if I implemented corelib as a singleton I would also have to pass the config file as a parameter to the GetInstance method, which I believe is also not right. 2) Create a static property or method to pass through the config file or other external parameter. I have sort of used the latter method and created a Load method which initializes an inner class which it passes through the config file in the constructor. Then this inner class is exposed through a public property MyCoreLib. public static class CoreLib { private static MyCoreLib myCoreLib; public static void Load(string configFile) { myCoreLib = new MyCoreLib(configFile); } public static MyCoreLib MyCoreLib { get { return myCoreLib; } } public class MyCoreLib { private string configFile; public MyCoreLib(string configFile) { this.configFile = configFile; } public void DoSomething() { } } } I'm still not happy though. The inner class is not initialized until you call the load method, so that needs to be considered anywhere the MyCoreLib is accessed. Also there is nothing to stop someone calling the load method again. Any other patterns or ideas how to accomplish this?

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  • jquery click on anchor element forces scroll to top?

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/720970/jquery-hyperlinks-href-value[link text][1] I am running in to a problem using jquery and a click event attached to an anchor element. [1]: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/720970/jquery-hyperlinks-href-value "This" SO question seems to be a duplicate, and the accepted answer doesn't seem to solve the problem. Sorry if this is bad SO etiquette. In my .ready() function I have: jQuery("#id_of_anchor").click(function(event) { //start function when any update link is clicked Function_that_does_ajax(); }); and my anchor looks like this: <a href="#" id="id_of_anchor"> link text </a> but when the link is clicked, the ajax function is performed as desired, but the browser scrolls to the top of the page. not good. I've tried adding: event.preventDefault(); before calling my function that does the ajax, but that doesn't help. What am I missing? Clarification I've used every combination of return false; event.preventDefault(); event.stopPropagation(); before and after my call to my js ajax function. It still scrolls to the top.

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  • Unhandled Status Event (facebook application)

    - by Fahim Akhter
    Hi, I'm getting the following error looked around couldn't find a resultion to it. I'm working on Facebook btw with flash. Warning: AllowScriptAccess='never' found in HTML. This setting is ineffective and deprecated. See http://www.adobe.com/go/allowscriptaccess for details. One of your LocalConnection variables was able to connect say: calling callFBJS a329775198094_sendShoeNumber args ["test"] say: sending to _swf416624 method: asMethod args ["10"] Error #2044: Unhandled StatusEvent:. level=error, code= This is the code I am using: var connection:LocalConnection = new LocalConnection(); var connectionName:String = LoaderInfo(this.root.loaderInfo).parameters.fb_local_connection; // Used to get information from javascript connection.allowDomain("*"); connection.client = { asMethod: function(paramOne:Number) { trace("HAVE RECIEVED SOMETHING : "+paramOne); } }; // To call the javascript function callFBJS(methodName:String, parameters:Array):void { if (connectionNameOne) { connectionOne.send(connectionNameOne, "callFBJS", methodName,parameters); } } callFBJS("sendShoeNumber", ["test"]); connection.addEventListener(StatusEvent.STATUS, testStatus); // Listener for status event function testStatus(event:StatusEvent):void { switch (event.level) { case "status": trace("One of your LocalConnection variables was able to connect"); break; case "error": trace("One of your LocalConnection variables FAILED to connect"); break; } } Have been stuck on this for a while now.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: null reference exception using HtmlHelper.TextBox and custom model binder

    - by mr.nicksta
    I have written a class which implements IModelBinder (see below). This class handles a form which has 3 inputs each representing parts of a date value (day, month, year). I have also written a corresponding HtmlHelper extension method to print out three fields on the form. When the day, month, year inputs are given values which can be parsed, but a seperate value fails validation, all is fine - the fields are repopulated and the page served to the user as expected. however when an invalid values are supplied and a DateTime cannot be parsed, i return an arbitrary DateTime so that the fields will be repopulated when returned to the user. I read up on similar problems people have had and they all seemed to be due to lack of calling SetModelValue(). I wasn't doing this, but even after adding the problem has not been resolved. public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { string modelName = bindingContext.ModelName; string monthKey = modelName + ".Month"; string dayKey = modelName + ".Day"; string yearKey = modelName + ".Year"; //get values submitted on form string year = bindingContext.ValueProvider[yearKey].AttemptedValue; string month = bindingContext.ValueProvider[monthKey].AttemptedValue; string day = bindingContext.ValueProvider[dayKey].AttemptedValue; DateTime parsedDate; if (DateTime.TryParse(string.Format(DateFormat, year, month, day), out parsedDate)) return parsedDate; //could not parse date time report error, return current date bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError(yearKey, ValidationErrorMessages.DateInvalid); //added this after reading similar problems, does not fix! bindingContext.ModelState.SetModelValue(modelName, bindingContext.ValueProvider[modelName]); return DateTime.Today; } the null reference exception is thrown when i attempt to create a textbox for the Year property of the date, but strangely not for Day or Month! Can anyone offer an explanation as to why this is? Thanks :-)

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  • WCF, ASMX Basic HTTP binding and IIS

    - by Brennan Mann
    Hello, I have been doing a lot of work with WCF "self" hosted applications. I recently was requested to write a web service where the calling client was a Linux based program named "WGET". I would like to use WCF instead of a traditional ASMX web service. The web service is returning a standard XML response. I am not sure of the underlining details between the two technologies but I know WCF is the proper route. I created a WCF service to be hosted in IIS ( using basicHttpBinding). 1.) Did classic ASMX web services ( standard HTTP POST/GET) use SOAP to return responses? I created an class from XSD for the web service response. What is really going on behind the scenes? Is there just special XML HTTP headers that know how to handle to response? Is the response not wrapped in SOAP? The traditional ASMX web service worked perfectly with the class I generated using the .Net "XSD" program. 2.) I want to use WCF for this service. Will using basicHttpBinding work? As I have read, that is the correct binding to use for ASMX clients. Does this use SOAP, standard HTTP headers, or something else? 3.) This is a dumb question because I have not done a lot of web service programming. I noticed on the ASMX default landing page there were examples for responses and code to invoke the functionality. When I create the same service using WCF, I had to create a client application to perform these tasks. Is there a way to expose the WCF endpoint like a classic ASMX service or is the WSDL the only route? As always, I really appreciate the feedback. Thanks, Brennan

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  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

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  • Connecting a DomainContext and loading data manually in Silverlight 4 RC application

    - by Redburn
    I am new to WCF & RIA services and have what seems like a basic problem. I have multiple times in my silverlight 4 RC application dragged and dropped from my datasource window to my form and have returned information from the database. However I have a need to query the database for other information (Building a report) When I try to use the following code, I recieve no error, but I also do not get any information back from the service. //Global public UMSDomainContext _umsDomainContext = new UMSDomainContext(); //In the Initialization portion _umsDomainContext.Load(_umsDomainContext.GetUMOptionsQuery()); //Queries var name = from n in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select n.DistrictName; var street1 = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Address1; var street2 = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Address2; var city = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.City; var zip = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Zip; Im calling the current additional assem. using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using MTT.Web;

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  • Fluent Nhibernate causes System.IndexOutOfRangeException on Commit()

    - by Moss
    Hey there. I have been trying to figure out how to configure the mapping with both NH and FluentNH for days, and I think I'm almost there, but not quite. I have the following problem. What I need to do is basically map these two entities, which are simplified versions of the actual ones. Airlines varchar2(3) airlineCode //PK varchar2(50) Aircraft varchar2(3) aircraftCode //composite PK varchar2(3) airlineCode //composite PK, FK referencing PK in Airlines varchar2(50) aircraftName My classes look like class Airline { string AirlineCode; string AirlineName; IList<Aircraft> Fleet; } class Aircraft { Airline Airline; string AircraftCode; string AircraftName; } Using FluentNH, I mapped it like so AirlineMap Table("Airlines"); Id(x => x.AirlineCode); Map(x => x.AirlineName); HasMany<Aircraft>(x => x.Fleet) .KeyColumn("Airline"); AircraftMap Table("Aircraft"); CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x => x.AircraftCode) .KeyReference(x => x.Airline); Map(x => x.AircraftName); References(x => x.Airline) .Column("Airline"); Using Nunit, I'm testing the addition of another aircraft, but upon calling transaction.Commit after session.Save(aircraft), I get an exception: "System.IndexOutOfRangeException : Invalid index 22 for this OracleParameterCollection with Count=22." The Aircraft class (and the table) has 22 properties. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • PInvokeStackImbalance was detected when manually running Xna Content pipeline

    - by Miau
    So I m running this code static readonly string[] PipelineAssemblies = { "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.FBXImporter" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.XImporter" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.TextureImporter" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.EffectImporter" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.XImporter" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.AudioImporters" + XnaVersion, "Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.VideoImporters" + XnaVersion, }; more code in between ..... // Register any custom importers or processors. foreach (string pipelineAssembly in PipelineAssemblies) { _buildProject.AddItem("Reference", pipelineAssembly); } more code in between ..... var execute = Task.Factory.StartNew(() => submission.ExecuteAsync(null, null), cancellationTokenSource.Token); var endBuild = execute.ContinueWith(ant => BuildManager.DefaultBuildManager.EndBuild()); endBuild.Wait(); Basically trying to build the content project with code ... this works well if you remove XImporter, AudioIMporters and VideoImporters but with those I get the following error: PInvokeStackImbalance was detected Message: A call to PInvoke function 'Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline!Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Content.Pipeline.UnsafeNativeMethods+AudioHelper::GetFormatSize' has unbalanced the stack. This is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature. Check that the calling convention and parameters of the PInvoke signature match the target unmanaged signature. Things I've tried: turn unsafe code on adding a lot of logging (the dll is found in case you are wondering) different wav and Mp3 files (just in case) Will update...

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  • Troubleshooting PG Function

    - by Grasper
    I have this function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION CREATE_AIRSPACE_AVAILABILITY_RECORD (cur_user VARCHAR, start_time VARCHAR, start_date VARCHAR, end_time VARCHAR, end_date VARCHAR, airspace_name VARCHAR) RETURNS VOID AS ' DECLARE c_user ALIAS for $1; BEGIN IF start_time IS NULL OR start_date IS NULL OR end_time IS NULL OR end_date IS NULL THEN INSERT INTO c_user.AIRSPACE_AVAILABILITY (ASP_AIRSPACE_NM, ASA_TIME_ID, ASA_START_DT, ASA_END_DT) SELECT airspace_name, 1, ABP.ABP_START_DT, ABP.ABP_STOP_DT FROM ABP WHERE EXISTS (SELECT ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM FROM AIRSPACE ASP WHERE ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM = airspace_name); ELSIF start_time IS NOT NULL AND start_date IS NOT NULL AND end_time IS NOT NULL AND end_date IS NOT NULL THEN INSERT INTO c_user.AIRSPACE_AVAILABILITY (ASP_AIRSPACE_NM, ASA_TIME_ID, ASA_START_DT, ASA_END_DT) SELECT airspace_name, 1, TO_DATE(start_date||start_time,''YYMMDDHH24MI''), TO_DATE(end_date||end_time,''YYMMDDHH24MI'') FROM DUAL WHERE EXISTS (SELECT ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM FROM c_user.AIRSPACE ASP WHERE ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM = airspace_name); END IF; END ; ' LANGUAGE plpgsql; I try calling it like so: select * from CREATE_AIRSPACE_AVAILABILITY_RECORD('user1','','','','',''); and I get this error: ERROR: schema "c_user" does not exist SQL state: 3F000 Context: SQL statement "INSERT INTO c_user.AIRSPACE_AVAILABILITY (ASP_AIRSPACE_NM, ASA_TIME_ID, ASA_START_DT, ASA_END_DT) SELECT $1 , 1, TO_DATE( $2 || $3 ,'YYMMDDHH24MI'), TO_DATE( $4 || $5 ,'YYMMDDHH24MI') FROM DUAL WHERE EXISTS (SELECT ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM FROM c_user.AIRSPACE ASP WHERE ASP.ASP_AIRSPACE_NM = $1 )" PL/pgSQL function "create_airspace_availability_record" line 23 at SQL statement Why isn't c_user being replaced with my param (user1)?

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  • Objective-C object release and allocation timing

    - by ryanjm.mp
    The code for this question is too long to be of any use. But I'm pretty sure my problem has to do with releasing a class. I have a helper class, ConnectionHelper.h/.m, that handles a NSURLConnection for me. Basically, I give it the URL I want and it returns the data (it happens to do a quick json parse on it too). It has a delegate which I set to the calling class (in this case: DownloadViewController). When it finishes the download, it calls [delegate didFinishParseOf:objectName withDictionary:dictionary];. Then in DownloadViewController I release ConnectionHelper and alloc a new one in order to download the next object. My problem is, I do this once, and then it creates the connection for the second one, and then my program just crashes. After this call: [[NSHTTPCookieStorage sharedHTTPCookieStorage] setCookieAcceptPolicy:NSHTTPCookieAcceptPolicyNever]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; Then I don't think any of the following methods are called: - (NSCachedURLResponse *)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection willCacheResponse:(NSCachedURLResponse *)cachedResponse - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge So am I right in that I'm not releasing something? When I release it the first time, the dealloc function isn't being called. Is there a way I can "force" it to deallocate? Do I need to force it to? I didn't think it would matter since I allocating a new ConnectionHelper for the new call. How else would they overlap / conflict with each other? Thank you.

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  • Starting CLI application programmatically does not work depending on arguments

    - by Daniel Beck
    I try to start plink.exe (PuTTY Link, the command line utility/version of PuTTY) from a C# application to establish an SSH reverse tunnel, but it does no longer work as soon as I pass the correct parameters. What does that mean? The following works as expected: it opens a command line window, displays that I forgot to pass the password for the -pw argument quits, and shows the prompt. I know it got the arguments, since it specifically requests the one thing I did not provide. Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw"; // TODO pwd Process p = Process.Start(info); I tried the same think with calling plink.exe directly instead of cmd.exe /k, but the window closes immediately, which is unfortunate for bug-hunting. BUT when I pass a password in the arguments, plink.exe displays the program help (showing available parameters) and quits: Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw secretpassword"; Process p = Process.Start(info); No indication of missing parameters. Both the cmd /k and plink.exe variants do not work (the latter closes immediately, so no information regarding different behaviour). When I launch the application from the Windows 7 Start Menu launcher with the identical parameters, it opens a cmd.exe window and establishes the connection as requested. What's wrong? Is there a way plink.exe notices it's not running in a real shell? If yes, how can I circumvent it, like the Start Menu "prompt" does? I hope this question is right on SO, since it, though specifically for a single application, revolves around launching it successfully programmatically.

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  • How can I pass more than one command line argument via c#

    - by user293392
    I need to pass more than one command line argument via c# for a process called handle.exe: http://www.google.com.mt/search?sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8&q=handle.exe First, I need to run the executable file via ADMINISTRATOR permissions. This post has helped me achieve just that: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/667381/programatically-run-cmd-exe-as-adminstrator-in-vista-c But then comes the next problem of calling the actual line arguments such as "-p explore" How can I specify the command line arguments together, or maybe consecutively? Current code is as follows: Process p = new Process(); ProcessStartInfo processStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("filePath"); processStartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; processStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; processStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; processStartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = true; processStartInfo.Verb = "runas"; processStartInfo.Arguments = "/env /user:" + "Administrator" + " cmd"; p.StartInfo = processStartInfo; p.Start(); string output = p.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); p.WaitForExit(); Console.WriteLine(output); Thanks

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  • Silverlight client never calls WCF Service

    - by Doug Nelson
    Hi all, This one has me completed stumped. I have developed a silverlight application that calls back to WCF services ( it's a silverlight - basicHttpBinding) The site works perfectly fine from my development machine, but when it is deployed to the developement server. The application is delivered with the XAP just fine, but it never attempts to talk to the service. I have a service call in the bootstrapper so it should be calling this when the client starts up. The services are healthy. They can be browsed to and show the standard WCF service display. We have been through the bindings many times and everything seems to be ok. I have added an extensive amount of error handling for displaying any errors, but on this dev server, no service calls and no errors are being raised. Fiddler shows the page being loaded up, but my client never issues a call to the service. The service is in the same folder as the default.aspx which hosts the Silverlight client. This is a Silverlight 3.0 app. Anybody ever seen anything similar?

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  • Remote DLL Registration without access to HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

    - by mohlsen
    We have a legacy VB6 application that updates itself on startup by pulling down the latest files and registering the COM components. This works for both local (regsvr32) ActiveX COM Components and remote (clireg32) ActiveX COM components registered in COM+ on another machine. New requirements are preventing us from writing to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE (HKLM) for security reasons, which is what obviously happens by default when calling regsvr32 and clireg32. We have come up with an way to register the local COM componet under HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Classes (HKCU) using the RegOverridePredefKey Windows API method. This works by redirecting the inserts into the registry to the HKCU location. Then when the COM components are instantiated, windows first looks to HKCU before looking for component information in HKLM. This replaces what regsvr32 is doing. The problem we are experiencing at this time is when we attempt to register VBR / TLB using clireg32, this registration process also adds registration keys to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE. Is there a way to redirect clireg32.exe to register component is HKEY_CURRENT_USER? Are there any other methods that would allow us to register these COM+ components on clients machine with limited security access? Our only solution at this time would be to manually write the registration information to the registry, but that is not ideal and would be a maint issue.

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  • Does HDC use alpha channel?

    - by Crend King
    Hello. Is there a way I can determine if an HDC uses alpha channel? I read Question 333559 and Question 685684, but their questions are about BITMAP. Apparently, some HDC has alpha channel (though they may not use it. Call this "Type 1") while others do not ("Type 2"). I know this by doing the following: Given a HDC, Create a compatible DC, and create a DIB section. Select the created HBITMAP into the compatible DC. BitBlt the source HDC to the compatible DC. Now examine the DIB section bits. For type 2 HDC, after every 3 bytes there is a byte always 0 (like 255 255 255 0); for type 1, these bytes are usualy 255 (like 250 240 230 255). To avoid false positive, I memset the bits to all 0x80 prior to the calls. Use GetDIBits directly on the source HDC, specify the HBITMAP as GetCurrentObject(hdc, OBJ_BITMAP). For both types of HDC, the 4th bytes are always 0. Change the DC bitmap by calling ExtTextOut. For type 2, ExtTextOut always set the 4th bytes to 0. For type 1, ExtTextOut always leave them untouched. I also noticed that the source HDC that are created by APIs (CreateCompatibleDC(), BeginPaint() ...) are always type 2. Type 1 HDC are from standard controls (like menu text). Even the HDC I CreateCompatibleDC from a type 1 becomes a type 2. So, on one hand, I'm frustrated that Microsoft does not provide equal information to developers (another example may be that you cannot know the direction of a HBITMAP after it is created), on the other hand, I'm still wondering is there a way to distinguish these HDC. Thanks for help.

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  • Python interface to PayPal - urllib.urlencode non-ASCII characters failing

    - by krys
    I am trying to implement PayPal IPN functionality. The basic protocol is as such: The client is redirected from my site to PayPal's site to complete payment. He logs into his account, authorizes payment. PayPal calls a page on my server passing in details as POST. Details include a person's name, address, and payment info etc. I need to call a URL on PayPal's site internally from my processing page passing back all the params that were passed in abovem and an additional one called 'cmd' with a value of '_notify-validate'. When I try to urllib.urlencode the params which PayPal has sent to me, I get a: While calling send_response_to_paypal. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 108, in process_paypal_ipn verify_result = send_response_to_paypal(params) File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 41, in send_response_to_paypal params = urllib.urlencode(params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 1261, in urlencode v = quote_plus(str(v)) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\ufffd' in position 9: ordinal not in range(128) I understand that urlencode does ASCII encoding, and in certain cases, a user's contact info can contain non-ASCII characters. This is understandable. My question is, how do I encode non-ASCII characters for POSTing to a URL using urllib2.urlopen(req) (or other method) Details: I read the params in PayPal's original request as follows (the GET is for testing): def read_ipn_params(request): if request.POST: params= request.POST.copy() if "ipn_auth" in request.GET: params["ipn_auth"]=request.GET["ipn_auth"] return params else: return request.GET.copy() The code I use for sending back the request to PayPal from the processing page is: def send_response_to_paypal(params): params['cmd']='_notify-validate' params = urllib.urlencode(params) req = urllib2.Request(PAYPAL_API_WEBSITE, params) req.add_header("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") response = urllib2.urlopen(req) status = response.read() if not status == "VERIFIED": logging.warn("PayPal cannot verify IPN responses: " + status) return False return True Obviously, the problem only arises if someone's name or address or other field used for the PayPal payment does not fall into the ASCII range.

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  • Editing 8bpp indexed Bitmaps

    - by Pedro Sá
    hi, i'm trying to edit the pixels of a 8bpp. Since this PixelFormat is indexed i'm aware that it uses a Color Table to map the pixel values. Even though I can edit the bitmap by converting it to 24bpp, 8bpp editing is much faster (13ms vs 3ms). But, changing each value when accessing the 8bpp bitmap results in some random rgb colors even though the PixelFormat remains 8bpp. I'm currently developing in c# and the algorithm is as follows: (C#) 1- Load original Bitmap at 8bpp 2- Create Empty temp Bitmap with 8bpp with the same size as the original 3-LockBits of both bitmaps and, using P/Invoke, calling c++ method where I pass the Scan0 of each BitmapData object. (I used a c++ method as it offers better performance when iterating through the Bitmap's pixels) (C++) 4- Create a int[256] palette according to some parameters and edit the temp bitmap bytes by passing the original's pixel values through the palette. (C#) 5- UnlockBits. My question is how can I edit the pixel values without having the strange rgb colors, or even better, edit the 8bpp bitmap's Color Table? Regards, Pedro

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  • IE8 window.opener problems

    - by fire
    Having problems with IE8... I have a button that onclick fires the showImageBrowser() function. function showImageBrowser(params) { var open = window.open('http://localhost/admin/browse?'+params,'newwin','toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=1,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=950,height=500'); if (!open) { alert('Could not open the image browser, please disable your popup blocker.'); } } Now in the image browser when you click on an image it calls this function: function selectFile(url, el) { window.opener.replaceImage('Test_Image', url); window.close(); } Which is calling the replaceImage() function in the parent window, as expeted. This is the code: function replaceImage(el, url) { $('#'+el).html('<a href="'+url+'" target="_blank" class="image">'+basename(url)+'</a>'); $("input[name='"+el+"']").val(url); } Now if you click on the original showImageBrowser() button for the second time, IE will bring up the window but this time it freezes for a few seconds and then you get the alert "Could not open the image browser, please disable your popup blocker." This works fine in Firefox (obviously) but not in IE. I haven't even tried it in IE7/6 because if it doesn't work in 8 then I know I'm going to have problems. Any advice?

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  • running bash scripts in php

    - by HDawg
    I have two computers. On the first computer I have apache running with all my web code. On the second computer I have large amounts of data stored with a retrieval script (the script usually takes hours to run). I am essentially creating a web UI to access this data without any time delay. so I call: exec("bash initial.bash"); this is a driver script that is in my Apache folder. It calls the script on the other computer. calling: ssh otherMachine temp.bash& this script invokes the data retrieval script on the second computer. If I call initial.bash in the terminal, everything works smoothly and successfully, but if I call it in my PHP file, then all my commands in initial.bash run, with the exception of ssh otherMachine temp.bash&. I put the & at the end of that, so that temp.bash will run in the background, since it does take a few hours to complete. I am not sure why the nested script is not running when invoked by Apache. Is there a better alternative than using exec or shell_exec to call a script, which ultimately calls another script. The reason I don't call a script on the second machine directly is because of the time it takes the program to run. Shell_exec does not render the php page until the script is complete.

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  • accessing $_SESSION when using file_get_contents in PHP

    - by hairdresser-101
    I have a page called send.email.php which sends an email - pretty simple stuff - I pass an order id, it creates job request and sends it out. This works fine when used in the context I developed it (Use javascript to make an AJAX call to the URL and pass the order_id as a query parameter) I am now trying to reuse the exact same page in another application however I am calling it using php file_get_contents($base_url.'admin/send.email.php?order_id='.$order_id). When I call the page this way, the $_SESSION array is empty isempty() = 1. Is this because I am initiating a new session using file_get_contents and the values I stored in the $_SESSION on login are not available to me within there? -- Thanks for the feedback. It makes sense that the new call doesn't have access to the existing session... New problem though: I now get: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! When trying to execute: $opts = array('http' => array('header'=> 'Cookie: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']."\r\n")); $context = stream_context_create($opts); $contents = file_get_contents($base_url.'admin/send.sms.php?order_id='.order_id, false, $context); YET, the URL works fine if I call it as: (It just doesn't let me access session) $result file_get_contents($base_url.'admin/send.sms.php?order_id='.$order_id);

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  • jQuery Autocomplete plugin (Jorn Zaefferer's) - how to dynamically change the list of displayed valu

    - by Max Williams
    I'm using Jorn Zaefferer's Autocomplete query plugin, http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-autocomplete/ I have options set so it shows all the values when you click in the empty text field, a bit like a select, and the option is also set so that the user can only choose from the list of values used by the autocomplete (so it's kind of like a select but with autocomplete functionality). I have two radio buttons below the text field, which determine whether the user chooses from a long list or a short list of possible values. I want to update the values used in the autocomplete when one of these radio buttons is clicked. Currently i'm doing this in a not very clever way by calling autocomplete again on the same text field, with the different array of values, but this creates a situation where both are active at once, and i can see the long list peeking out from behind the short list. What i need to do is either a) dynamically change the values used in the autocomplete or b) remove (unbind?) the autocomplete from the text field before re-initialising it. Either of these would do tbh though option a) is kind of nicer. Any ideas anyone? Here's my current code: function initSubjectLongShortList(field, short_values, long_values){ $(".subject_short_long_list").change(function(){ updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values); }); updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values); } function updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values){ if($(".subject_short_long_list:checked").attr('id') == "subject_long_list"){ initSubjectAutocomplete(field, long_values); } else { initSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values); } } function initSubjectAutocomplete(field, values){ jQuery(field).autocomplete(values, { minChars: 0, //make it appear as soon as we click in the field max: 2000, scrollHeight: 400, matchContains: true, selectFirst: false }); } cheers, max

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  • JTable Delete All Rows Exception

    - by Dimitri
    Hi, I'm trying to delete all entrys from my abstractTableModel. As long as I don't delete the last remaining row, everything works fine, but as soon as I delete this one, I get an ArrayOutOfBoundsException. I'm using a DefaultRowSorter and this seems to be the Exception. Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: Array index out of range: 0 at java.util.Vector.get(Vector.java:694) at graphics.tableModel.MyTableModel.getValueAt(MyTableModel.java:78) at graphics.tableModel.MyTableModel.getColumnClass(MyTableModel.java:90) at javax.swing.table.TableRowSorter.useToString(TableRowSorter.java:224) at javax.swing.DefaultRowSorter.updateUseToString(DefaultRowSorter.java:607) at javax.swing.DefaultRowSorter.sort(DefaultRowSorter.java:556) at javax.swing.DefaultRowSorter.shouldOptimizeChange(DefaultRowSorter.java:1008) at javax.swing.DefaultRowSorter.rowsDeleted(DefaultRowSorter.java:866) at javax.swing.JTable.notifySorter(JTable.java:4262) at javax.swing.JTable.sortedTableChanged(JTable.java:4106) at javax.swing.JTable.tableChanged(JTable.java:4383) at javax.swing.table.AbstractTableModel.fireTableChanged(AbstractTableModel.java:280) my Code to delete all Rows: public void deleteAll() { int size = data.size()-1; data.clear(); this.fireTableRowsDeleted(0, size); } Same thing happens with simply deleting the last existing row. public void deleteRow(int row) { data.remove(row); } the way i'm calling deleteRow: for (int i = rows.length - 1; i >=0; i--) { tm.deleteRow(rows[i]); } tm.fireTableDataChanged(); thanks for your help

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  • Using maven-release-plugin to tag and commit to non-origin

    - by Ali G
    When I do a release of my project, I want to share the source with a wider group of people than I normally do during development. The code is shared via a Git repository. To do this, I have used the following: remote public repository - released code is pushed here, every week or so (http://example.com/public) remote private repository - non-release code is pushed here, more than daily (http://example.com/private) In my local git repository, I have the following remotes defined: origin http://example.com/private public http://example.com/public I am currently trying to configure the maven-release-plugin to manage versioning of the builds, and to manage tagging and pushing of code to the public repository. In my pom.xml, I have listed the <scm/ as follows: <scm><connection>scm:git:http://example.com/public</connection></scm> (Removing this line will cause mvn release:prepare to fail) However, when calling mvn release:clean release:prepare release:perform Maven calls git push origin tagname rather than pushing to the URL specified in the POM. So the questions are: Best practice: Should I just be tagging and committing in my private repo (origin), and pushing to public manually? Can I make Maven push to the repository that I choose, rather than defaulting to origin? I felt this was implied by the requirement of the <connection/ element in <scm/.

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