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• Strange build issue using Flex Mojo. Looking for troubleshooting suggestions.

  - by WeeJavaDude

  I have ran into a strange issue and I was hoping for some suggeestion on how to attack the problem. Here is the environment. 1) We develop locally using Flex Builder. 2) We use QuickBuild with FlexMojo 3.4.2 for test builds and production 3) In both cases we don't believe optimization is enabled. What we are seeing is some strange behavior relating to the Ctrl-Enter key when doing testing on IE only in our test environment but not locally. By copying some files over locally I have narrowed the issue down to swf files differences. We do see a difference in the size of swf files in our test environment vs our local environments. Couple things that would help me in troubleshooting would be. 1) Is there a way to know what exactly is in the SWF file? What SWCs are included. 2) How does one compare compile settings between a maven mojo configuration and Flex IDE envioronment? Any thoughts or opinions would be very helpful.

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• How can I get the main thread to sleep while waiting for a delgate to be called?

  - by Erik B

  Consider a class with these methods: - (id) initWithFrame: (CGRect) frame { if (!(self = [super init])) return nil; webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setDelegate:self]; lock = [[NSConditionLock alloc] initWithCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; return self; } - (void) setHTML: (NSString *) html { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; [webView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; [lock unlock]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)aWebView { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; // Locking to be able to unlock and change the condition. [lock unlockWithCondition:LOCK_GO]; } - (NSString *) stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: (NSString *) jsCommand { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_GO]; return [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; [lock unlock]; } Let's call this class SynchronousUIWebView. From the main thread I execute: webView = [[SynchronousUIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setHTML:html]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; The problem seems to be that the delegate is not called until I leave the current call stack, which I don't since I'm waiting for the delegate call to happen, aka deadlock. To me it seems like the delegate call is pushed to a queue that is called when the current call is done. So the question is can I modify this behavior? Note: The reason this is needed is that I can't execute the JavaScript until the HTML has loaded.

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• Getting element position in IE versus other browsers

  - by Channel72

  We all know IE6 is difficult. But there seems to be disparate behavior in positioning in later versions of IE as well, when compared with Firefox or other browsers. I have a simple pair of javascript functions which finds the position of an element, and then displays another element in relation to the first element. The idea is to get the second element, which is somewhat larger, to appear in front of the first element when the mouse hovers over it. It works fine, except on all versions of Internet Explorer, the position of the second element appears different than in Firefox. The code to get the position of an element is: function getPosition(e) { var left = 0; var top = 0; while (e.offsetParent) { left += e.offsetLeft; top += e.offsetTop; e = e.offsetParent; } left += e.offsetLeft; top += e.offsetTop; return {x:left, y:top}; } And the actual rollover display code is: var pos = getPosition(elem1); elem2.style.top = pos.y - 8; elem2.style.left = pos.x - 6; In Firefox, elem2 appears directly over elem1, as I want it to. But in IE7 or IE8 it appears way off. What is the reason this occurs, and is there a way to fix it?

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• How to disable firefox's form auto completion without change events?

  - by Dmitriy Likhten

  So firefox has a nifty mechanism which will try to autocomplete values in fields when a page is reloaded or the back button is used. Which is great and all except when you have something like a drop-down which when set to a value modifies the page using ajax. What winds up happening is that the browser reloads the page, the drop down is pre-filled with the remembered value, and then no change event is fired when the dom is ready. And therefore the change handlers attached don't fire and thus the page does not update. Is there a good way to "fix" this behavior so that it works for the user as expected: a) We do want the browser to auto-complete because that is a good user experience. b) Still want that onchange event firing. The only thing I can think of doing at the moment is to add an on-ready event to the document which has javascript pre-populated with initial values in the form, when the document loads the javascript will check the pre-populated values and if not matching what is in the input will trigger the change handlers. Anyone have a better solution? Is there a lib that does this already? (Using Rails 2.3.5 + jQuery)

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• Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

  - by Sam Dahan

  I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

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• Reordering methods in ComImport interfaces throws COMException (0x80041001)

  - by Ohad Schneider

  Consider the following code for COM interop with internet shortcuts: [ComImport] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] [Guid("CABB0DA0-DA57-11CF-9974-0020AFD79762")] public interface IUniformResourceLocatorW { void SetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] string pcszUrl, int dwInFlags); void GetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] out StringBuilder ppszUrl); void InvokeCommand(IntPtr purlici); } [ComImport] [Guid("FBF23B40-E3F0-101B-8488-00AA003E56F8")] public class InternetShortcut { } The following works as expected: var ishort = new InternetShortcut(); ((IPersistFile)ishort).Load("MyLink.url", 0); ((IUniformResourceLocatorW)ishort).GetUrl(out url); However: If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl (which I am not using), IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl throws a COMException (HResult 0x80041001). If I switch between IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl and IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl (that is place the former below the latter) the same exception is thrown If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.InvokeCommand the code runs fine. It's as if the order has to be preserved "up to" the invoked method. Is this behavior by design? documented somewhere? I'm asking because some COM interfaces are composed of many methods with possibly many supporting types and I'd rather avoid defining what I don't need if possible.

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• VirtualBox limits size of .js file, that can be included from guest additions folder?

  - by c69

  This question might belong to SuperUser, but i'll try to ask it here anyway, because i believe, some web developers might encountered this weird behavior. When testing a site for IE8/winXP compatibility on VirtualBox i run into weird issue of $ is undefined, which is caused by jQuery (and jQuery UI) being not included, when referenced by relative path, which resolves to file:/// url. Seemingly because their size was too big (above 200KB). Simply replacing links to those 2 big files to http:// ones solved the issue for me. But here is the question: why did this happen ? is it a misconfiguration ? a bug ? a known design decision ? Details: VirtualBox 4.1.8 host os: win7 64bit, guest os: xp sp3 32 bit guest additions installed, page was launched from VB shared folder the bug was manifesting itself in all browsers (even in opera, which ignores ie security settings, afaik) ie configuration is default script was included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery/jquery-1.7.2.js"> exact size limit was not deducted.

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• Is a control's OnInit called even when attaching it during parent's OnPreRender?

  - by Xerion

  My original understanding was that the asp.net page lifecycle is run once for all pages and controls under normal circumstances. When I attached a control during a container's OnPreRender, I encountered a situation where the control's OnInit was not called. OK, I considered that a bug in my code and fixed as such, by attaching the control earlier. But just today, I encountered a situation where OnInit for a control seems to be called after the normal OnInit has been done for everyone else. See stack below. It seems that during the page's PreRender, the control's OnInit is called as it is being dynamically added. So I just want to confirm exactly what ASP.NET's behavior is? Does it actually keep track of the stage of each control's lifecycle, and upon adding a new control, it will run from the very beginning? [HttpException (0x80004005): The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases.] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +8678663 MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.Initialize() MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.OnInit(EventArgs e) System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +198 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 MyCompany.Web.Controls.PageHeader.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) in System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842

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• Toggle two divs and classes

  - by kuswantin

  I have two links with classes (login-form and register-form) relevant to their target forms ID, they want to toggle. I have also a predefined 'slideToggle' function to toggle better. This is what I have tried so far: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); $('#userbar a').removeClass('active'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form,#login-form').hide(); //bad, causing flashy $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); return false; }); With this I have trouble with the flashy window, and to correctly toggle the active classes when another link is clicked, the other link should not have active class anymore. Additional problem is the link is dead on serial clicks. I have another try, longer one: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); switch (c) { case 'login-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form').hide(); break; case 'register-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#login-form').hide(); break; } return false; }); This one is worse than the first :( Any suggestion to correct the behavior? What I want is when a link with class login-form is click, so toggle the form with ID login-form, and hide the register-form if open. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Plot vectors with labels in matlab

  - by mad

  I have a Nx62 matrix with N 62-D vectors and a NX1 vector with the labels for the vectors. I am trying to plot these vectors with their labels because I want to see the behavior of these classes when plotted in a 62-dimensional space. The vectors belong to three classes according to the labels of a NX1 vector cited before. How to to that in matlab? when i do plot(vector,classes) the result is very weird to analyse, how to put labels in the graph? The code i am using to get the labels, vectors and plotting is the following: %labels is a vector with labels, vectors is a matrix where each line is a vector [labels,vectors]=libsvmread('features-im1.txt'); when I plot a three dimensional vector is simple a=[1,2,3] plot(a) and then I get the result but now i have a set of vectors and a set of labels, and i want to see the distribution of them, i want to plot each of these labels but also want to identify their classes. How to do that in matlab? EDIT: This code is almost working. The problem is the fact that for each vector and class the plot will assign a color. I just want three colors and three labels, one per class. [class,vector]=libsvmread('features-im1.txt'); %the plot doesn't allow negative and 0 values in the label class=class+2; labels = {'class -1','class 0','class 1'}; h = plot(vector); legend(h,labels{class})

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• Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

  - by Lily

  I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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• Flex web application: prevent framerate drop when window is invisible

  - by JayPea

  So there's been a new "feature" in the flash player since version 10.1, which reduces the player's framerate to 2 fps when the application window is out of view. This is good news for performance, but it can break some functionality, such as the Timer class. I have an application which uses a Timer to display a countdown. Given the nature of the application, it is required for the Timer to complete its countdown even if the user is not there to see it. Imagine that you need to give the user only 10 seconds to perform a task. If the user minimizes the window halfway through the counter, they can take as much time as they want and still have 5 seconds left when they return to the window. This apparently can not be avoided with the newer flash players. In Air applications there is the backgroundFrameRate property which can be set to prevent this behavior, but this is part of the WindowedApplication class, so it seems that it is not available in a web application. Does anyone know a way to keep a constant frame rate even when the window is not visible? Thanks

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• Error in Python's os.walk?

  - by Mike Caron

  The os.walk documentation (http://docs.python.org/library/os.html? highlight=os.walk#os.walk), says I can skip traversing unwanted directories by removing them from the dir list. The explicit example from the docs: import os from os.path import join, getsize for root, dirs, files in os.walk('python/Lib/email'): print root, "consumes", print sum(getsize(join(root, name)) for name in files), print "bytes in", len(files), "non-directory files" if 'CVS' in dirs: dirs.remove('CVS') # don't visit CVS directories I see different behavior (using ActivePython 2.6.2). Namely for the code: >>> for root,dirs,files in os.walk(baseline): ... if root.endswith(baseline): ... for d in dirs: ... print "DIR: %s" % d ... if not d.startswith("keep_"): ... print "Removing %s\\%s" % (root,d) ... dirs.remove(d) ... ... print "ROOT: %s" % root ... I get the output: DIR: two Removing: two DIR: thr33 Removing: thr33 DIR: keep_me DIR: keep_me_too DIR: keep_all_of_us ROOT: \\mach\dirs ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah\Extracted ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah2\Extracted\Stuff_1 ... WTF? Why wasn't \\mach\dirs\ONE removed? It clearly doesn't start with "keep_".

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• Visibility of reintroduced constructor

  - by avenmore

  I have reintroduced the form constructor in a base form, but if I override the original constructor in a descendant form, the reintroduced constructor is no longer visible. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; constructor TfrmA.Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); begin FWndParent := AWndParent; inherited Create(AOwner); end; type TfrmB = class(TfrmA) private public end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; end; constructor TfrmC.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited Create(AOwner); end; When creating: frmA := TfrmA.Create(nil, 0); frmB := TfrmB.Create(nil, 0); frmC := TfrmC.Create(nil, 0); // Compiler error My work-around is to override the reintroduced constructor or to declare the original constructor overloaded, but I'd like to understand the reason for this behavior. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); overload; override; constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); override; end;

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• Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

  - by marc_s

  Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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• How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

  - by Ned Batchelder

  Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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• Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

  - by bitbonk

  We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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• Function with parameter type that has a copy-constructor with non-const ref chosen?

  - by Johannes Schaub - litb

  Some time ago I was confused by the following behavior of some code when I wanted to write a is_callable<F, Args...> trait. Overload resolution won't call functions accepting arguments by non-const ref, right? Why doesn't it reject in the following because the constructor wants a Test&? I expected it to take f(int)! struct Test { Test() { } // I want Test not be copyable from rvalues! Test(Test&) { } // But it's convertible to int operator int() { return 0; } }; void f(int) { } void f(Test) { } struct WorksFine { }; struct Slurper { Slurper(WorksFine&) { } }; struct Eater { Eater(WorksFine) { } }; void g(Slurper) { } void g(Eater) { } // chooses this, as expected int main() { // Error, why? f(Test()); // But this works, why? g(WorksFine()); } Error message is m.cpp: In function 'int main()': m.cpp:33:11: error: no matching function for call to 'Test::Test(Test)' m.cpp:5:3: note: candidates are: Test::Test(Test&) m.cpp:2:3: note: Test::Test() m.cpp:33:11: error: initializing argument 1 of 'void f(Test)' Can you please explain why one works but the other doesn't?

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• Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

  - by tricote

  Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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• Inconsistent table width when hideing/showing a set of columns

  - by Salman A. Kagzi

  I have got a an HTML table of around 40+ columns. To make this table fit in the screen and have the data in a re presentable format we have section in this table. i.e. there are some column that are always visible and the remainder a made visible when s specific radio button (describing a section) is selected. Each radio button is associated to different number of columns. We show/hide a column by setting/removing "display:none" style in all the cell under that column. This all works Just fine. Now the real problem is with the width of the columns in this table. I cant use fixed with with pixel settings. I have tried using the percentage setting by giving 50% to the always visible part and rest 50% is divided between the column in a section. But I am unable to get a fixed behavior i.e. the size of the table columns across IE & FF. Some columns are just right while some are really huge. How can I get the table to give consistent column width across browsers?

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• Why SetMinimumSize sets the minimal heights but not width?

  - by Roman

  Here is my code: import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class PanelModel { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Colored Trails"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(); mainPanel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(mainPanel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); JPanel firstPanel = new JPanel(); firstPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(4, 4)); firstPanel.setMaximumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); firstPanel.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); JButton btn; for (int i=1; i<=4; i++) { for (int j=1; j<=4; j++) { btn = new JButton(); btn.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(100, 100)); firstPanel.add(btn); } } mainPanel.add(firstPanel); frame.add(mainPanel); frame.setSize(520,600); //frame.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(520,600)); frame.setVisible(true); } } When I increase the size of the window (by mouse) I see that my panel does not increase its size. It is the expected behavior (because I set the maximal size of the panel). However, when I decrease the size of the window, I see that width of the panel is decreased too (while the height is constant). So, the setMinimumSize works only partially. Why is that?

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• Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

  - by Andrew

  I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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• Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

  - by George Edison

  Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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