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  • UITabBarController with viewControllers utilizing different orientations?

    - by RickiG
    Hi I can see that this is something that has been troubling a lot of people:/ I have a UITabBarController that has 4 viewControllers, all of type UINavigationController. One of the navigationControllers gets a viewController pushed onto its stack, this viewController should be presented in landscape mode/orientation. The viewController is a graph, it is the absolutely only place in the app where landscape makes sense. (I hide the UITabBar when this is presented to not lead the user to believe this will work everywhere) To make a UITabBarController respond correctly to changes in orientation all its viewControllers need to return the same value from the delegate method: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation So to accomodate this behavior I have implemented this method in all the viewControllers belonging to the UITabBarController: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL canRotate = [defaults boolForKey:@"can_rotate"]; return canRotate; } The "trick" is now that when my can-be-landscape viewController is pushed I do this: - (void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setBool:YES forKey:@"can_rotate"]; [defaults synchronize]; } and when it is popped, I do this: - (void) viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setBool:NO forKey:@"can_rotate"]; [defaults synchronize]; } This works really well. When the viewController is on the stack I can rotate the device and the view follows. The problem is however, that if the user taps the "back" button on the navigationBar while in landscape mode, thus popping the viewController to the previous viewController, this "old" viewController is of course also in landscape mode. To make things worse, because I set the BOOL to NO, this "old" viewController can not rotate back when I orientate the device to portrait mode. Is there a way to update everything so that none of my other viewControllers will be in landscape mode when I pop the can-be-in-landscape mode viewController? I am a bit worried that if this could be done from landscape to portrait it should also be possible from portrait to landscape, thus making my "hack" unnecessary.. but if it can not, then I am back to square one :/ Hope I am close and that someone could help me get there, thanks:)

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  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

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  • Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

    - by Sam Dahan
    I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

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  • Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

    - by seth
    I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

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  • Why does TrimStart trims a char more when asked to trim "PRN.NUL" ?

    - by James
    Here is the code: namespace TrimTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string ToTrim = "PRN.NUL"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); string Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("PRN.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); ToTrim = "PRN.AUX"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("PRN.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); ToTrim = "AUX.NUL"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("AUX.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); } } } The output is like this: PRN.NUL UL PRN.AUX AUX AUX.NUL NUL As you can see, the TrimStart took out the N from NUL. But it doesn't do that for other strings even if it started with PRN. I tried with .NET Framework 3.5 and 4.0 and the results are same. Are there any explanation on what causes this behavior?

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  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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  • Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

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  • wsdl xml parsing , maxlength problem after encoding of text

    - by MichaelD
    We are working together with another firm. our application communicates with the other application through WCF on our side and a custom implemented java wsdl handler on the other side. They specify the wsdl format and one of the rules is that a specific string cannot contain more then 15 characters. (normally it's 60, but i take 15 for easy example reasons) When we try to send the following string to them we get an error that the string is too long according to the wsdl: "example & test" this is a string of 14 characters, so it should be allowed the microsoft wcf parser translates this to "example &amp; test" . This encoded string is 18 characters long. Now what is the standaard behavior to check a maxlength defined in a message? Is it the encoded message or the decoded message? I would think it's the decoded message , but i ain't sure. If it is the encoded message, how should we handle this so we would know how we have to split the string?

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  • Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

    - by tricote
    Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

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  • Performance difference in for loop condition?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

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  • Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

    - by Lily
    I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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  • Toggle two divs and classes

    - by kuswantin
    I have two links with classes (login-form and register-form) relevant to their target forms ID, they want to toggle. I have also a predefined 'slideToggle' function to toggle better. This is what I have tried so far: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); $('#userbar a').removeClass('active'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form,#login-form').hide(); //bad, causing flashy $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); return false; }); With this I have trouble with the flashy window, and to correctly toggle the active classes when another link is clicked, the other link should not have active class anymore. Additional problem is the link is dead on serial clicks. I have another try, longer one: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); switch (c) { case 'login-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form').hide(); break; case 'register-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#login-form').hide(); break; } return false; }); This one is worse than the first :( Any suggestion to correct the behavior? What I want is when a link with class login-form is click, so toggle the form with ID login-form, and hide the register-form if open. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

    - by Brian Sullivan
    I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <!-- Lots more like these --> </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

    - by Daniel Koch
    ... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

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  • __toString magic and type coercion

    - by TomcatExodus
    I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • Zend hostname route doesn't match when it has child routes

    - by talisker
    I am implementing an Admin module, which contains the following routes: 'router' => array( 'routes' => array( 'admin' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Hostname', 'options' => array( 'route' => ':subdomain.mydomain.local', 'constraints' => array( 'subdomain' => 'admin', ), 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), 'priority' => 9000, 'may_terminate' => true, 'child_routes' => array( 'users' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/users', 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Users', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), ) ), ), ), And this is the home route configuration: 'home' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/', 'defaults' => array( 'controller' => 'Application\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), When I try to access to http://admin.mydomain.com, the route match always with the homeroute, but if I remove all the child routes from the admin route, the behavior is correct and a http://admin.mydomain.com matches with the adminroute. Any idea?

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  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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  • Jquery click event propagation

    - by ozsenegal
    I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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