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  • How to know why an animation stutters?

    - by Patrick Klug
    I have a few fairly simple animations (moving text around, moving ellipses etc.) and running in full screen (1920x1080 minus the task bar) the WPF Performance Suite reports a good framerate around 50 FPS throughout the animation. Dirty Rect Addition is somewhere around 300 rect/s, the SW frames are between 0 and 4 and the HW frames are between 3 and 5. Video memory usage is around 80 MB. Problem is that the animations stutters every other half second. My machine is a new Dell laptop XPS 15 with the GeForce GT 435 with 2GB memory. - The drivers are up to date. (The same behavior occurs on my netbook (in full screen) as well so I don't think it is hardware related.) If I make the window smaller the stutter goes away. The stutter occurs with the simplest of animations - even with just a couple of elements but adding more elements certainly makes it more noticeable. How can I find out what causes this stutter? When I think of it, I have not actually seen any WPF animations which run smoothly in full screen. Is this even possible?

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  • Inconsistent table width when hideing/showing a set of columns

    - by Salman A. Kagzi
    I have got a an HTML table of around 40+ columns. To make this table fit in the screen and have the data in a re presentable format we have section in this table. i.e. there are some column that are always visible and the remainder a made visible when s specific radio button (describing a section) is selected. Each radio button is associated to different number of columns. We show/hide a column by setting/removing "display:none" style in all the cell under that column. This all works Just fine. Now the real problem is with the width of the columns in this table. I cant use fixed with with pixel settings. I have tried using the percentage setting by giving 50% to the always visible part and rest 50% is divided between the column in a section. But I am unable to get a fixed behavior i.e. the size of the table columns across IE & FF. Some columns are just right while some are really huge. How can I get the table to give consistent column width across browsers?

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  • Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

    - by Brian Sullivan
    I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <!-- Lots more like these --> </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

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  • How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

    - by Nazariy
    Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • C# Web Service gets stuck waiting for lock, does not return

    - by blue
    We have a C#(2.0) application which talks to our server(in java) via web services. Lately we have started seeing following behavior in (ONLY)one of our lab machines(XP): Once in a while(every few days), one of the webservice request will just get stuck, will not return or timeout. Following is the stacktrace where it seem to be stuck. Have no clue what is going on here. Any pointer would be of great help. ESP EIP 05eceeec 7c90eb94 [GCFrame: 05eceeec] 05ecefbc 7c90eb94 [HelperMethodFrame_1OBJ: 05ecefbc] System.Threading.Monitor.Enter(System.Object) 05ecf014 7a5b0034 System.Net.ConnectionGroup.Disassociate(System.Net.Connection) 05ecf040 7a5aeaa7 System.Net.Connection.PrepareCloseConnectionSocket(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0a4 7a5ac0e1 System.Net.Connection.ReadStartNextRequest(System.Net.WebRequest, System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0e8 7a5b1119 System.Net.ConnectStream.CallDone(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult) 05ecf0fc 7a5b3b5a System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadChunkedSync(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf114 7a5b2b90 System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadWithoutValidation(Byte[], Int32, Int32, Boolean) 05ecf160 7a5b29cc System.Net.ConnectStream.Read(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1a0 79473cab System.IO.StreamReader.ReadBuffer(Char[], Int32, Int32, Boolean ByRef) 05ecf1c4 79473bd6 System.IO.StreamReader.Read(Char[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1e8 69c29119 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ReadData() 05ecf1f8 69c2ad70 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseDocumentContent() 05ecf20c 69c292d7 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Read() 05ecf21c 69c2929d System.Xml.XmlTextReader.Read() 05ecf220 6991b3e7 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapClientMessage, System.Net.WebResponse, System.IO.Stream, Boolean) 05ecf268 69919ed1 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(System.String, System.Object[])

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  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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  • Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

    - by Andrew
    I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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  • I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

    - by Daniel Koch
    ... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Right way to return proxy model instance from a base model instance in Django ?

    - by sotangochips
    Say I have models: class Animal(models.Model): type = models.CharField(max_length=255) class Dog(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Woof!" class Meta: proxy = True class Cat(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Meow!" class Meta: proxy = True Let's say I want to do: animals = Animal.objects.all() for animal in animals: animal.make_sound() I want to get back a series of Woofs and Meows. Clearly, I could just define a make_sound in the original model that forks based on animal_type, but then every time I add a new animal type (imagine they're in different apps), I'd have to go in and edit that make_sound function. I'd rather just define proxy models and have them define the behavior themselves. From what I can tell, there's no way of returning mixed Cat or Dog instances, but I figured maybe I could define a "get_proxy_model" method on the main class that returns a cat or a dog model. Surely you could do this, and pass something like the primary key and then just do Cat.objects.get(pk = passed_in_primary_key). But that'd mean doing an extra query for data you already have which seems redundant. Is there any way to turn an animal into a cat or a dog instance in an efficient way? What's the right way to do what I want to achieve?

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  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • Performance difference in for loop condition?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

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  • Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

    - by Adam Lassek
    I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

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  • VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

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  • Strongly Typed DataSet column requires custom type to implement IXmlSerializable?

    - by Phil
    I have a strongly typed Dataset with a single table with three columns. These columns all contain custom types. DataColumn1 is of type Parent DataColumn2 is of type Child1 DataColumn3 is of type Child2 Here is what these classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlInclude(typeof(Child1)), XmlInclude(typeof(Child2))] public abstract class Parent { public int p1; } [Serializable] public class Child1 :Parent { public int c1; } [Serializable] public class Child2 : Parent { public int c1; } now, if I add a row with DataColumn1 being null, and DataColumns 2 and 3 populated and try to serialize it, it works: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(null, new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Works! } However, if I try to add a value to DataColumn1, it fails: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(new Child1(), new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Fails! } Here is the Exception: "Type 'WindowsFormsApplication4.Child1, WindowsFormsApplication4, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' does not implement IXmlSerializable interface therefore can not proceed with serialization." I have also tried using the XmlSerializer to serialize the dataset, but I get the same exception. Does anyone know of a way to get around this where I don't have to implement IXmlSerializable on all the Child classes? Alternatively, is there a way to implement IXmlSerializable keeping all default behavior the same (ie not having any class specific code in the ReadXml and WriteXml methods)

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  • [Adobe Air] Can I catch a mouseUp event of an mx:Window that did not fire hte mouseDown?

    - by Irene
    Hi, In an AIR application, I have one mx:TileList with several images. What I need to do is let the user drag and drop one of the images on the desktop, giving a feeling of a desktop widget. Firstly I tried to implement this using dragStart etc, but in the end I think it is easier to handle mouseDown and mouseUp on the TileList. In general the whole setup works as desired. When a mouseDown is detected on the TileList, I create a transparent mx:Window containing the corresponding image, and call the startMove() on the Window to simulate a dragging behavior. If I release the mouse, the Window stops moving as desired. My problem is that now I want some visual feedback during dragging. It works while the Window is moving, however I can't find a way to stop it when the user releases the mouse. The mouseUp is not fired from the TileList, nor from the s:WindowedApplication. I also tried to add a listener to the Window itself, but still with no luck. Some code: private function onMouseDown(e:MouseEvent):void { trace ("down " + e.target); if (e.target is TileListItemRenderer) { // first create a dragWindow dragWindow.startGlow(); // then show some visual feedback dragWindow.moveWindow(e); // and start dragging } } private function onMouseUp(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("up " + e.target); dragWindow.stopGlow(); // <--------- Not called! } <mx:TileList id="photoTileList" mouseDown="onMouseDown(event)" mouseUp="onMouseUp(event)">

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • Loading an FLV in Facebox with jQuery for IE7 and IE8

    - by Trip
    It goes almost without saying, this works perfectly in Chrome, Firefox, and Safari. IE (any version) being the problem. Objective: I am trying to load JWplayer which loads an FLV from S3 in a Facebox popup. jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox() }) HTML (haml): %li#videoGirl = link_to 'What is HQchannel?', '#player', :rel => 'facebox' .grid_8.omega.alpha#player{:style => 'display: none;'} :javascript var so = new SWFObject('/flash/playerTrans.swf','mpl','640px','360px','0'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess','always'); so.addParam('allowfullscreen','true'); so.addParam('wmode','transparent'); so.addVariable('file', 'http://hometownquarterlyvideos.s3.amazonaws.com/whatishqchannel.flv&autostart=true&controlbar=none&repeat=always&image=/flash/video_girl/whatishqchannel.jpg&icons=false&screencolor=none&backcolor=FFFFFF&screenalpha=0&overstretch'); so.addVariable('overstretch', 'true') so.write('player'); Problem: Despite the video being set to display: none;. It begins playing anyway. When clicking on the activation div, IE7 pops up a wrong sized blank div with a nav (params are set to not show nav and scrubber), and no buttons on the nav and srubber work. IE8 shows the right size but same behavior with nav and scrubber not working, and blank screen. My guess: I'm thinking that the problem is with the javascript not being called at the right times. It seems it's loading the facebox without the jwplayer. At least I assume. Hence the reason why the nav is there. I thinking that it did not read the javascript for that.

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