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  • Debugging in VS 2008 locks a stored procedure

    - by larryq
    Hi everyone, I've got a strange one here. I have a .Net executable that, under the hood, calls a few stored procedures. For whatever reason, one of the stored procs hangs when I'm debugging. If I run the executable outside of visual studio things go fine, including this stored proc. It's when I'm debugging that this hangs, and it really hangs. If I stop the debugging session the IDE freezes and I have to kill it via taskmanager. I know which stored procedure has the trouble, as well as the actual statement within it that's the problem. It's calling an update statement that doesn't stand out as particularly special. I can run the identical statement (and the stored procedure itself) from SQL management studio wtih no problem. And, as I mentioned, the exe runs just fine outside the debugger. If I use the SQL activity monitor to see why things are hanging, the wait type says PREEMPTIVE_DEBUG. I'm not sure if that's helpful but if you need more info I'll try to get it to you. I've rebooted my machine (the SQL Server in question is on this box as well) and that didn't do anything, nor did rebuilding the executable. I'm scratching my head on this one and if you have any ideas what to check on next, I'm be happy to listen. Thanks!

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  • Missing elements of collection

    - by Neir0
    I have a collection ObservableCollection<string> outoverList And i have a function which call collection outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); Function call collection a few times, but sometimes collection lost elements. We call a function - function adds element - collection has 9 elements(for example) - in the next function calling collection has only 8 elements. One elements be missing. Here Resharpers Find usages log: Search target FindElementHandler.outoverList:ObservableCollection<string> Found 3 usages in solution <FindElementExperiments> (3 items) FindElementHandler.cs (3 items) (50,13) outoverList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); (94,13) outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); (118,13) outoverList.Add("over:" + element.tagName); As you can see i just add elements to collection everywhere. i havent remove elements code. Maybe i did something wrong you can look at screen capture: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ei6dQnHCMIc I am newbie and often encounter with various problems but this bug looks mystic for me. P/S/ Sorry for english

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  • How do i close the alert dialog that displays custom view

    - by Asdfg
    I have an activity named MainActivity which has a button. On click of that button i am displaying an AlertDialog which contains a custom view named ChildWindow.xml. That custom view has multiple textboxes and a OK button. On click of the OK button, i am calling a method of MainActivity. I am able to access the ChildWindow here as view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Once the user clicks on the OK button, i have to close the alert dialog which i am able to do as view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); My problem is even though i have closed the the ChildWindow in the above statement, i am able to get reference to the textbox in the next line which means AlertDialog is closed but child window is still there. This is how the OK button click looks like: This works as expected: EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); This should not work as i am closing the alert dialog and then getting the reference of the textbox but this works too. view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); I think i am closing the alert dialog but i am not destroying it from the memory. Can someone point me out what am i missing here?

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  • Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

    - by Todd Owen
    Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

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  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as img src="/Home/SampleChart" alt="Sample Chart" when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

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  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

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  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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  • Using A Local file path in a Streamwriter object ASP.Net

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I am trying to create a csv file of some data. I have wrote a function that successfully does this.... Private Sub CreateCSVFile(ByVal dt As DataTable, ByVal strFilePath As String) Dim sw As New StreamWriter(strFilePath, False) ''# First we will write the headers. ''EDataTable dt = m_dsProducts.Tables[0]; Dim iColCount As Integer = dt.Columns.Count For i As Integer = 0 To iColCount - 1 sw.Write(dt.Columns(i)) If i < iColCount - 1 Then sw.Write(",") End If Next sw.Write(sw.NewLine) ''# Now write all the rows. For Each dr As DataRow In dt.Rows For i As Integer = 0 To iColCount - 1 If Not Convert.IsDBNull(dr(i)) Then sw.Write(dr(i).ToString()) End If If i < iColCount - 1 Then sw.Write(",") End If Next sw.Write(sw.NewLine) Next sw.Close() End Sub The problem is I am not using the streamwriter object correctly for what I trying to accomplish. Since this is an asp.net I need the user to pick a local filepath to put the file on. If I pass any path to this function its gonna try to write it to the directory specified on the server where the code is. I would like this to popup and let the user select a place on their local machine to put the file.... Dim exData As Byte() = File.ReadAllBytes(Server.MapPath(eio)) File.Delete(Server.MapPath(eio)) Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", String.Format("attachment; filename={0}", fn)) Response.ContentType = "application/x-msexcel" Response.BinaryWrite(exData) Response.Flush() Response.End() I am calling the first function in code like this... Dim emplTable As DataTable = SiteAccess.DownloadEmployee_H() CreateCSVFile(emplTable, "C:\\EmplTable.csv") Where I dont want to have specify the file loaction (because this will put the file on the server and not on a client machine) but rather let the user select the location on their client machine. Can someone help me put this together? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I capture a WinForm window to a bitmap without the caret

    - by Steve Dunn
    I've got window on a WinForm that I want to get the bitmap representation of. For this, I use the following code (where codeEditor is the control I want a bitmap representation of): public Bitmap GetBitmap( ) { IntPtr srcDC = NativeMethods.GetDC( codeEditor.Handle ) ; var bitmap = new Bitmap( codeEditor.Width, codeEditor.Height ) ; Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage( bitmap ) ; var deviceContext = graphics.GetHdc( ) ; bool blitted = NativeMethods.BitBlt( deviceContext, 0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height, srcDC, 0, 0, 0x00CC0020 /*SRCCOPY*/ ) ; if ( !blitted ) { throw new InvalidOperationException( @"The bitmap could not be generated." ) ; } int result = NativeMethods.ReleaseDC( codeEditor.Handle, srcDC ) ; if ( result == 0 ) { throw new InvalidOperationException( @"Cannot release bitmap resources." ) ; } graphics.ReleaseHdc( deviceContext ) ; graphics.Dispose( ) ; The trouble is, this captures the caret if it's flashing in the window at the time of capture. I tried calling the Win32 method HideCaret before capturing, but it didn't seem to have any effect.

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  • boost::lambda bind expressions can't get bind to string's empty() to work

    - by navigator
    Hi, I am trying to get the below code snippet to compile. But it fails with: error C2665: 'boost::lambda::function_adaptor::apply' : none of the 8 overloads could convert all the argument types. Sepcifying the return type when calling bind does not help. Any idea what I am doing wrong? Thanks. #include <boost/lambda/lambda.hpp> #include <boost/lambda/bind.hpp> #include <string> #include <map> int main() { namespace bl = boost::lambda; typedef std::map<int, std::string> types; types keys_and_values; keys_and_values[ 0 ] = "zero"; keys_and_values[ 1 ] = "one"; keys_and_values[ 2 ] = "Two"; std::for_each( keys_and_values.begin(), keys_and_values.end(), std::cout << bl::constant("Value empty?: ") << std::boolalpha << bl::bind(&std::string::empty, bl::bind(&types::value_type::second, _1)) << "\n"); return 0; }

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • multi-part identifier could not be bound error

    - by vishal Shah
    Here is my query: IF OBJECT_ID('NPWAS1513.dbo.usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load; GO CREATE PROCEDURE usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load @create_timestamp datetime, @update_timestamp datetime, @create_user varchar(50), @update_user varchar(50), @dbProdServ varchar(50) AS print 'dbProdServ is:'+ @dbProdServ; print 'current_user is:' +@current_user; DECLARE @sSQL AS VARCHAR(MAX); SET @sSQL = '' SET @sSQL = 'set identity_insert ' + @dbProdServ + '.mspex_qlk_billing_fact ON' EXEC(@sSQL); SET @sSQL = 'INSERT INTO ' + @dbProdServ +'.mspex_qlk_billing_fact (project_id, billing_year, billing_month, billing_month_desc, billing_date_id, projected_bill_amount, billed_year_to_date_amount, billed_inception_to_date_amount, remaining_bill_amount, actual_billed_amount, current_billing_percent, previous_billing_percent, billing_pct_diff, billing_type, final_bill_ind, last_in_progress_date, current_record_ind, load_time_stamp, total_contract_period, contract_period_current_year, partial_bill, create_timestamp, create_user, update_timestamp, update_user) SELECT project_dim.project_id, billing_final_data.billingyear, billing_final_data.billingmonth, billing_final_data.billingmonthdesc, Time_Dim.Time_ID, billing_final_data.projected_bill_amount, billing_final_data.billed_year_todate_amount, billing_final_data.billed_inception_todate_amount, billing_final_data.remaining_bill_amount, billing_final_data.actual_billed_amount, billing_final_data.current_billing_percent, billing_final_data.previous_billing_percent, billing_final_data.billing_pct_diff, billing_final_data.billing_type, billing_final_data.final_bill_ind, billing_final_data.last_in_progress_date, billing_final_data.current_record_ind, billing_final_data.load_time_stamp, billing_final_data.[Total Contract Period], billing_final_data.[Contract Period Current Year], billing_final_data.[Partial Bill],'''+ CAST(@create_timestamp as varchar(max)) + ''',''' + @create_user + ''','''+ CAST(@update_timestamp as varchar(50)) +''','''+ @update_user + ''' FROM '+ @dbProdServ +'.mspex_qlk_project_dim project_dim,'+ @dbProdServ +'.mspex_rpt_billing_final_data billing_final_data,'+ @dbProdServ + '.MSPEX_QLK_Time_Dim Time_Dim WHERE project_dim.myproject_project_uid = billing_final_data.projectuid AND'''+ convert(datetime, cast(billing_final_data.[BillingMonth] as nvarchar(2)) + '''/01/''' + cast(billing_final_data.[billingyear] as nvarchar(4)), 101) +''' + = Time_Dim.Time_Date'; BEGIN TRANSACTION EXEC(@sSQL) COMMIT TRANSACTION I get the error msg: Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 23 The multi-part identifier "mspex_rpt_billing_final_data.BillingMonth" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 23 The multi-part identifier "billing_final_data.billingyear" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 83 Invalid column name 'BillingMonth'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_MSPEX_QLK_Billing_Fact_Load, Line 84 Invalid column name 'billingyear'. I checked the column names, etc. and things are fine. In fact, I directly dragged the table name and column name to ensure that it is correct. Please help ASAP. Calling me at cell at 630-338-9427 would be great. But an URGENT response is absolutely necessary. Thanks guys.

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  • Find & Replace - using a Regex for this?

    - by Jack W-H
    Hey folks. Regexs make me cry, so, I came here for help. I'm looking for some tips on Find & Replace in Panic's Coda. I know the F&R is pretty advance but I'm just looking for the best way to do this. I'm trying to rewrite a 'template engine' (very basic) I have going on with a webapp I'm coding in PHP (CodeIgniter). Currently I'm calling my template like so: $this->load->view('subviews/template/headerview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/menuview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/sidebar'); $this->load->view('The-View-I-Want-To-Load'); // This is the important line $this->load->view('subviews/template/footerview'); However it's inefficient using five lines of code every time I want to load up a different page, in every different controller. So I rewrote it like this: $data['view'] = 'The-View-I-Want-To-Load'; $this->load->view('template',$data); That way if I need to make any major changes to the design it can easily be done from the template.php view file (which contains the header, menu, sidebar views etc. etc.). However I use the previous 5-lines all over the place in many different controllers and functions. So, my question is --- How can I find and replace the old template engine (5 lines of code) for the new one - substituting in the name of the view in the important, unique line for the one in $data['view]? Does that make any sense?! If not I'll try and rephrase! I mean, is there a way of doing this via a Regex or something? Or am I on completely the wrong lines here? Thanks for your help Jack

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  • UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

    - by hadronzoo
    I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

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  • Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

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  • After Adding "readonly" attribute on text box not able to remove it in one event

    - by Sreedhar K
    Steps to repro USE Internet Explorer Check unlimited check box Click on text box (It will remove tick/check from check box) Try to enter text in text box We cannot enter in the text box 4. Click again on the text box. Now we will be able to enter text in the text box We tried by 1. Making attribute readOnly to flase i.e. $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); 2. Calling $('#myinput').click(); Below is the HTML code <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Make input read only</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input id="myinput" type="text" /> <input id="mycheck" type="checkbox" /> <script type="text/javascript"> /*oncheck box click*/ $('#mycheck').click(function () { if ($(this).attr('checked')) { $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', 'readOnly'); } else { $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ } }); /*on text box click*/ $('#myinput').click(function () { $('#mycheck').removeAttr('checked'); $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ }); </script> </body> </html> Live copy

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  • wxpython GUI and multiprocessing - how to send data back from the long running process

    - by wxpydon
    Hello everyone, Trying to run a time consuming task from a wxpython GUI. The basic idea is to start the long time task from the GUI (pressing a button) and then, a static text on the dialog should be updated from it. First I tried some threading (http://wiki.wxpython.org/LongRunningTasks and many other resourses seen), and I want to show back the messages using Publisher.class. It didn't went so well, after a message or two, the GUI seems to frozen. Now I want to achieve that with multiprocessing. I have this method inside my 'GUI' class: def do_update(self, e): self.txt_updatemsg.SetLabel("Don't stop this \n") ... pub = Publisher() # i tried also calling directly from dbob object # Publisher() is a singleton so this must be useless? pub.subscribe(self.__update_txt_message, ('updatedlg', 'message')) dbob = dbutils.DBUtils() # DBUtils is the class with 'long time' tasks dbob.publisher = pub p = Process(target=self.do_update_process, args=(dbob,)) p.start() while p.is_alive: wx.Yield def do_update_process(self, dbob): dbob.do_update() __update_txt_message is a simple function what sets the static text on dialog. Question is: how can I send back some text messages from this Process (just simple text, that's all I need) Thanks guys!

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  • How can I add a plugin to the registry while using a Zend_Form?

    - by Mallika Iyer
    I have a zend form that I'm initializing as follows: $form = new Form_XYZ(); I have a display group in that form, which I'm calling like this: $form->addDisplayGroup($generalSettingsGroup, 'general', array( 'legend' => 'General', 'disableDefaultDecorators' => true, 'decorators' => array( 'FormElements', 'FieldSet', array('HtmlTag', array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'general') ) ) ) ); I get this error : ArrayObject Object ( [exception] => Zend_Loader_PluginLoader_Exception Object ( [message:protected] => Plugin by name 'FieldSet' was not found in the registry; used paths:Zend_Form_Decorator_: Zend/Form/Decorator/ [string:private] => [code:protected] => 0 [file:protected] => /usr/share/pear/PEAR/Zend/Loader/PluginLoader.php [line:protected] => 406 [trace:private] => Array ................... How can I add the FieldSet plugin to the registry? I'm using the default Zend_Form Fieldset decorator.

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  • Properly declare delegation in Objective C (iPhone)

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Ok, This has been explained a few times (I got most of the way there using this post on SO), but I am missing something. I am able to compile cleanly, and able to set the delegate as well as call methods from the delegate, but I'm getting a warning on build: No definition of protocol 'DetailViewControllerDelegate' is found I have a DetailViewController and a RootViewController only. I am calling a method in RootViewController from DetailViewController. I have the delegate set up as so: In RootViewController.h: #import "DetailViewController.h" @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, DetailViewControllerDelegate> //Error shows up here { //Some Stuff Here } //Some other stuff here @end In RootViewController.m I define the delegate when I create the view using detailViewController.delegate = self In DetailViewController.h: @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate; #import "RootViewController.h" @interface DetailViewController : UITableViewController <UITextFieldDelegate> { id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; } @property (nonatomic, assign) id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; @end @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate //some methods that reside in RootViewController.m @end I feel weird about declaring the protocol above the import in DetailViewController.h, but if I don't it doesn't build. Like I said, the methods are called fine, and there are no other errors going on. What am I missing here?

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  • Loading UITableView form UIView

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi Guys, I am working on navigation based application in which i can navigate to many views starting from default UITableView which is starting view in application template. I have added another UIView and added tableView control on that UIView. I am calling that view form one of the many views on a button click. Its showing the view but not populating the data in the table. And I also want to handle the event when user taps on the cell of the table of that view. Below is the Code I am using on button click: if(self.lstView == nil) { ListViewController *viewController = [[ListViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ListViewController" bundle:nil]; self.lstView = viewController; [viewController release]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:lstView animated:YES]; self.lstView.title = @"Select";//@"System"; [self.lstView.tblList.dataSource fillList]; Below is the fillList function code: -(NSArray *)fillList { NSArray *tempArray = [[[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Item 1" , @"Item 2" , nil]autorelease]; return tempArray; } I am pretty new in Iphone programming and don't have much understanding. Helping with detailed description and code will be highly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • LINQDataSource and private columns

    - by fyjham
    Hey, I was trying to use a ListView bound to a LinqDataSource to insert to a table where I had a few columns private to the table class (Specifically password columns - only access I want to give outside the class is methods that generate the salt and encrypt the password to store it in 1 go). I gave this a few shots, but I didn't come up with anything I really liked... was wondering if anyone has a better way to do this. The methods I've found: Use the LinqDataSource inserting event and make the appropriate calls on e.NewObject. I don't really like this because it's so far removed from the actual input and there's no simple way to hold the password in the meantime other than a class variable set during the ListView's inserting event (Which works, but seems a little dodgy). Open up these properties and just ask everyone to use the appropriate static methods for encoding the passwords they pass in. I don't really like this cause I'd prefer that class to enforce data integrity rather than relying on all calling code doing it properly... I'm currently going with option #1, but I don't really like passing values between events using class variables like that (It just seems unstructured... even though I can guarantee the events will happen in the right order). Does anyone know a better way, or alternatively am I being too pedantic and one of the methods above is actually the right way to go? Thanks

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  • Call WCF Service Through Javascript, AJAX, or JQuery

    - by obautista
    I created a number of standard WCF Services (Service Contract and Host (svc) are in separate assemblies). I fired up a Web Site in IIS to host the Services (i.e., address is http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc). Then in my Web Site project I added the reference. I am able to call the services normally. I am needed to call some of the services client side. Not sure if I should be looking at articles calling WCF services through AJAX, JQuery, or JSON enabled WCF Services. Can anyone provide any thoughts or experience with configuring as such? Some of the changes I made was adding the following to the Operation Contract: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "SetFoo")] void SetFoo(string Id); Then this above the implementation of the interface: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] Then in the service webconfig I have this (parens are angle brackets): <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc/"/>> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="false" /> Then in the client side I attempted this: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy ID="ScriptManagerProxy1" runat="server"> <compositeScript> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="http://Flixsit:1000/FlixsitWebServices.svc" /> </Scripts> </CompositeScript> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> I am attempting to call the service like this in javascript: wcfservices.SetFoo(string Id); Nothing is working. If it is idea or a better solution to call JSON enable, JQuery, etc....I am willing to make any changes. Thanks for any suggestions/tips provided....

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