Search Results

Search found 8818 results on 353 pages for 'undefined behavior'.

Page 300/353 | < Previous Page | 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307  | Next Page >

  • Toggle two divs and classes

    - by kuswantin
    I have two links with classes (login-form and register-form) relevant to their target forms ID, they want to toggle. I have also a predefined 'slideToggle' function to toggle better. This is what I have tried so far: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); $('#userbar a').removeClass('active'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form,#login-form').hide(); //bad, causing flashy $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); return false; }); With this I have trouble with the flashy window, and to correctly toggle the active classes when another link is clicked, the other link should not have active class anymore. Additional problem is the link is dead on serial clicks. I have another try, longer one: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); switch (c) { case 'login-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form').hide(); break; case 'register-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#login-form').hide(); break; } return false; }); This one is worse than the first :( Any suggestion to correct the behavior? What I want is when a link with class login-form is click, so toggle the form with ID login-form, and hide the register-form if open. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I make a family of singletons?

    - by Jay
    I want to create a set of classes that share a lot of common behavior. Of course in OOP when you think that you automatically think "abstract class with subclasses". But among the things I want these classes to do is to each have a static list of instances of the class. The list should function as sort of a singleton within the class. I mean each of the sub-classes has a singleton, not that they share one. "Singleton" to that subclass, not a true singleton. But if it's a static, how can I inherit it? Of course code like this won't work: public abstract A { static List<A> myList; public static List getList() { if (myList==null) myList=new ArrayList<A>(10); return myList; } public static A getSomethingFromList() { List listInstance=getList(); ... do stuff with list ... } public int getSomethingFromA() { ... regular code acting against current instance ... } } public class A1 extends A { ... } public class A2 extends A { ... } A1 somethingfromA1List=(A1) A1.getSomethingFromList(); A2 somethingfromA2List=(A2) A2.getSomethingFromList(); The contents of the list for each subclass would be different, but all the code to work on the lists would be the same. The problem with the above code is that I'd only have one list for all the subclasses, and I want one for each. Yes, I could replicate the code to declare the static list in each of the subclasses, but then I'd also have to replicate all the code that adds to the lists and searches the list, etc, which rather defeats the purpose of subclassing. Any ideas on how to do this without replicating code?

    Read the article

  • How can I get the main thread to sleep while waiting for a delgate to be called?

    - by Erik B
    Consider a class with these methods: - (id) initWithFrame: (CGRect) frame { if (!(self = [super init])) return nil; webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setDelegate:self]; lock = [[NSConditionLock alloc] initWithCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; return self; } - (void) setHTML: (NSString *) html { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; [webView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; [lock unlock]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)aWebView { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; // Locking to be able to unlock and change the condition. [lock unlockWithCondition:LOCK_GO]; } - (NSString *) stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: (NSString *) jsCommand { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_GO]; return [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; [lock unlock]; } Let's call this class SynchronousUIWebView. From the main thread I execute: webView = [[SynchronousUIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setHTML:html]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; The problem seems to be that the delegate is not called until I leave the current call stack, which I don't since I'm waiting for the delegate call to happen, aka deadlock. To me it seems like the delegate call is pushed to a queue that is called when the current call is done. So the question is can I modify this behavior? Note: The reason this is needed is that I can't execute the JavaScript until the HTML has loaded.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

    - by Preston
    I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

    Read the article

  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

    Read the article

  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

    Read the article

  • How to disable firefox's form auto completion without change events?

    - by Dmitriy Likhten
    So firefox has a nifty mechanism which will try to autocomplete values in fields when a page is reloaded or the back button is used. Which is great and all except when you have something like a drop-down which when set to a value modifies the page using ajax. What winds up happening is that the browser reloads the page, the drop down is pre-filled with the remembered value, and then no change event is fired when the dom is ready. And therefore the change handlers attached don't fire and thus the page does not update. Is there a good way to "fix" this behavior so that it works for the user as expected: a) We do want the browser to auto-complete because that is a good user experience. b) Still want that onchange event firing. The only thing I can think of doing at the moment is to add an on-ready event to the document which has javascript pre-populated with initial values in the form, when the document loads the javascript will check the pre-populated values and if not matching what is in the input will trigger the change handlers. Anyone have a better solution? Is there a lib that does this already? (Using Rails 2.3.5 + jQuery)

    Read the article

  • Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

    - by tricote
    Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why does TrimStart trims a char more when asked to trim "PRN.NUL" ?

    - by James
    Here is the code: namespace TrimTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string ToTrim = "PRN.NUL"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); string Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("PRN.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); ToTrim = "PRN.AUX"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("PRN.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); ToTrim = "AUX.NUL"; Console.WriteLine(ToTrim); Trimmed = ToTrim.TrimStart("AUX.".ToCharArray()); Console.WriteLine(Trimmed); } } } The output is like this: PRN.NUL UL PRN.AUX AUX AUX.NUL NUL As you can see, the TrimStart took out the N from NUL. But it doesn't do that for other strings even if it started with PRN. I tried with .NET Framework 3.5 and 4.0 and the results are same. Are there any explanation on what causes this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

    - by Adam Lassek
    I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

    - by Lily
    I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

    Read the article

  • Nose2 multiprocess error on Windows7

    - by tt293
    I was looking into nose2 as a way to get around the restrictions of having both xunit output and multiprocessing in nose1.3. However, when always-on is set to False in the [multiprocess] section, I can only get a single process running, while when running with always-on set to True, I get the following error: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 0 tests in 0.043s OK Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\Scripts\nose2-script.py", line 8, in <module> load_entry_point('nose2==0.4.7', 'console_scripts', 'nose2')() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 284, in discover return main(*args, **kwargs) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ super(PluggableTestProgram, self).__init__(**kw) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\unittest2-0.5.1- py2.7.egg\unittest2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ self.runTests() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 260, in runTests self.result = runner.run(self.test) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\runner.py", line 53, in run executor(test, result) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\plugins\mp.py", line 60, in _runmp ready, _, _ = select.select(rdrs, [], [], self.testRunTimeout) select.error: (10038, 'An operation was attempted on something that is not a soc ket') This is running python 2.7.5 (32bit) on Windows 7 in a virtualenv with six-1.1.0, unittest2-0.5.1 and nose2-0.4.7 (I get the same behavior outside of the venv, so I don't think that is the issue here).

    Read the article

  • Is a control's OnInit called even when attaching it during parent's OnPreRender?

    - by Xerion
    My original understanding was that the asp.net page lifecycle is run once for all pages and controls under normal circumstances. When I attached a control during a container's OnPreRender, I encountered a situation where the control's OnInit was not called. OK, I considered that a bug in my code and fixed as such, by attaching the control earlier. But just today, I encountered a situation where OnInit for a control seems to be called after the normal OnInit has been done for everyone else. See stack below. It seems that during the page's PreRender, the control's OnInit is called as it is being dynamically added. So I just want to confirm exactly what ASP.NET's behavior is? Does it actually keep track of the stage of each control's lifecycle, and upon adding a new control, it will run from the very beginning? [HttpException (0x80004005): The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases.] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +8678663 MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.Initialize() MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.OnInit(EventArgs e) System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +198 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 MyCompany.Web.Controls.PageHeader.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) in System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842

    Read the article

  • Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

    - by Sam Dahan
    I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

    Read the article

  • __toString magic and type coercion

    - by TomcatExodus
    I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

    Read the article

  • Visibility of reintroduced constructor

    - by avenmore
    I have reintroduced the form constructor in a base form, but if I override the original constructor in a descendant form, the reintroduced constructor is no longer visible. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; constructor TfrmA.Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); begin FWndParent := AWndParent; inherited Create(AOwner); end; type TfrmB = class(TfrmA) private public end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; end; constructor TfrmC.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited Create(AOwner); end; When creating: frmA := TfrmA.Create(nil, 0); frmB := TfrmB.Create(nil, 0); frmC := TfrmC.Create(nil, 0); // Compiler error My work-around is to override the reintroduced constructor or to declare the original constructor overloaded, but I'd like to understand the reason for this behavior. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); overload; override; constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); override; end;

    Read the article

  • How to know why an animation stutters?

    - by Patrick Klug
    I have a few fairly simple animations (moving text around, moving ellipses etc.) and running in full screen (1920x1080 minus the task bar) the WPF Performance Suite reports a good framerate around 50 FPS throughout the animation. Dirty Rect Addition is somewhere around 300 rect/s, the SW frames are between 0 and 4 and the HW frames are between 3 and 5. Video memory usage is around 80 MB. Problem is that the animations stutters every other half second. My machine is a new Dell laptop XPS 15 with the GeForce GT 435 with 2GB memory. - The drivers are up to date. (The same behavior occurs on my netbook (in full screen) as well so I don't think it is hardware related.) If I make the window smaller the stutter goes away. The stutter occurs with the simplest of animations - even with just a couple of elements but adding more elements certainly makes it more noticeable. How can I find out what causes this stutter? When I think of it, I have not actually seen any WPF animations which run smoothly in full screen. Is this even possible?

    Read the article

  • Performance difference in for loop condition?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

    Read the article

  • Error in Python's os.walk?

    - by Mike Caron
    The os.walk documentation (http://docs.python.org/library/os.html? highlight=os.walk#os.walk), says I can skip traversing unwanted directories by removing them from the dir list. The explicit example from the docs: import os from os.path import join, getsize for root, dirs, files in os.walk('python/Lib/email'): print root, "consumes", print sum(getsize(join(root, name)) for name in files), print "bytes in", len(files), "non-directory files" if 'CVS' in dirs: dirs.remove('CVS') # don't visit CVS directories I see different behavior (using ActivePython 2.6.2). Namely for the code: >>> for root,dirs,files in os.walk(baseline): ... if root.endswith(baseline): ... for d in dirs: ... print "DIR: %s" % d ... if not d.startswith("keep_"): ... print "Removing %s\\%s" % (root,d) ... dirs.remove(d) ... ... print "ROOT: %s" % root ... I get the output: DIR: two Removing: two DIR: thr33 Removing: thr33 DIR: keep_me DIR: keep_me_too DIR: keep_all_of_us ROOT: \\mach\dirs ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah\Extracted ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah2\Extracted\Stuff_1 ... WTF? Why wasn't \\mach\dirs\ONE removed? It clearly doesn't start with "keep_".

    Read the article

  • Inconsistent table width when hideing/showing a set of columns

    - by Salman A. Kagzi
    I have got a an HTML table of around 40+ columns. To make this table fit in the screen and have the data in a re presentable format we have section in this table. i.e. there are some column that are always visible and the remainder a made visible when s specific radio button (describing a section) is selected. Each radio button is associated to different number of columns. We show/hide a column by setting/removing "display:none" style in all the cell under that column. This all works Just fine. Now the real problem is with the width of the columns in this table. I cant use fixed with with pixel settings. I have tried using the percentage setting by giving 50% to the always visible part and rest 50% is divided between the column in a section. But I am unable to get a fixed behavior i.e. the size of the table columns across IE & FF. Some columns are just right while some are really huge. How can I get the table to give consistent column width across browsers?

    Read the article

  • XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby: end of file reached (EOFError)

    - by Michael Conigliaro
    Hello, I have some very simple Ruby code that is attempting to do XML-RPC over SSL: require 'xmlrpc/client' require 'pp' server = XMLRPC::Client.new2("https://%s:%d/" % [ 'api.ultradns.net', 8755 ]) pp server.call2('UDNS_OpenConnection', 'sponsor', 'username', 'password') The problem is that it always results in the following EOFError exception: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:135:in `sysread': end of file reached (EOFError) So it appears that after doing the POST, I don't get anything back. Interestingly, this is the behavior I would expect if I tried to make an HTTP connection on the HTTPS port (or visa versa), and I actually do get the same exact exception if I change the protocol. Everything I've looked at indicates that using "https://" in the URL is enough to enable SSL, but I'm starting wonder if I've missed something. Note that Even though the credentials I'm using in the RPC are made up, I'm expecting to at least get back an XML error page (similar to if you access https://api.ultradns.net:8755/ with a web browser). I've tried running this code on OSX and Linux with the exact same result, so I have to conclude that I'm just doing something wrong here. Does anyone have any examples of doing XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby?

    Read the article

  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

    Read the article

  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

    Read the article

  • Why SetMinimumSize sets the minimal heights but not width?

    - by Roman
    Here is my code: import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class PanelModel { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Colored Trails"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(); mainPanel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(mainPanel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); JPanel firstPanel = new JPanel(); firstPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(4, 4)); firstPanel.setMaximumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); firstPanel.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); JButton btn; for (int i=1; i<=4; i++) { for (int j=1; j<=4; j++) { btn = new JButton(); btn.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(100, 100)); firstPanel.add(btn); } } mainPanel.add(firstPanel); frame.add(mainPanel); frame.setSize(520,600); //frame.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(520,600)); frame.setVisible(true); } } When I increase the size of the window (by mouse) I see that my panel does not increase its size. It is the expected behavior (because I set the maximal size of the panel). However, when I decrease the size of the window, I see that width of the panel is decreased too (while the height is constant). So, the setMinimumSize works only partially. Why is that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307  | Next Page >