Search Results

Search found 8818 results on 353 pages for 'undefined behavior'.

Page 301/353 | < Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >

  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

    Read the article

  • Why SetMinimumSize sets the minimal heights but not width?

    - by Roman
    Here is my code: import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class PanelModel { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Colored Trails"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(); mainPanel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(mainPanel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); JPanel firstPanel = new JPanel(); firstPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(4, 4)); firstPanel.setMaximumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); firstPanel.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); JButton btn; for (int i=1; i<=4; i++) { for (int j=1; j<=4; j++) { btn = new JButton(); btn.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(100, 100)); firstPanel.add(btn); } } mainPanel.add(firstPanel); frame.add(mainPanel); frame.setSize(520,600); //frame.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(520,600)); frame.setVisible(true); } } When I increase the size of the window (by mouse) I see that my panel does not increase its size. It is the expected behavior (because I set the maximal size of the panel). However, when I decrease the size of the window, I see that width of the panel is decreased too (while the height is constant). So, the setMinimumSize works only partially. Why is that?

    Read the article

  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

    Read the article

  • Performance difference in for loop condition?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

    Read the article

  • I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

    - by Daniel Koch
    ... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

    Read the article

  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Loading an FLV in Facebox with jQuery for IE7 and IE8

    - by Trip
    It goes almost without saying, this works perfectly in Chrome, Firefox, and Safari. IE (any version) being the problem. Objective: I am trying to load JWplayer which loads an FLV from S3 in a Facebox popup. jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox() }) HTML (haml): %li#videoGirl = link_to 'What is HQchannel?', '#player', :rel => 'facebox' .grid_8.omega.alpha#player{:style => 'display: none;'} :javascript var so = new SWFObject('/flash/playerTrans.swf','mpl','640px','360px','0'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess','always'); so.addParam('allowfullscreen','true'); so.addParam('wmode','transparent'); so.addVariable('file', 'http://hometownquarterlyvideos.s3.amazonaws.com/whatishqchannel.flv&autostart=true&controlbar=none&repeat=always&image=/flash/video_girl/whatishqchannel.jpg&icons=false&screencolor=none&backcolor=FFFFFF&screenalpha=0&overstretch'); so.addVariable('overstretch', 'true') so.write('player'); Problem: Despite the video being set to display: none;. It begins playing anyway. When clicking on the activation div, IE7 pops up a wrong sized blank div with a nav (params are set to not show nav and scrubber), and no buttons on the nav and srubber work. IE8 shows the right size but same behavior with nav and scrubber not working, and blank screen. My guess: I'm thinking that the problem is with the javascript not being called at the right times. It seems it's loading the facebox without the jwplayer. At least I assume. Hence the reason why the nav is there. I thinking that it did not read the javascript for that.

    Read the article

  • C# Web Service gets stuck waiting for lock, does not return

    - by blue
    We have a C#(2.0) application which talks to our server(in java) via web services. Lately we have started seeing following behavior in (ONLY)one of our lab machines(XP): Once in a while(every few days), one of the webservice request will just get stuck, will not return or timeout. Following is the stacktrace where it seem to be stuck. Have no clue what is going on here. Any pointer would be of great help. ESP EIP 05eceeec 7c90eb94 [GCFrame: 05eceeec] 05ecefbc 7c90eb94 [HelperMethodFrame_1OBJ: 05ecefbc] System.Threading.Monitor.Enter(System.Object) 05ecf014 7a5b0034 System.Net.ConnectionGroup.Disassociate(System.Net.Connection) 05ecf040 7a5aeaa7 System.Net.Connection.PrepareCloseConnectionSocket(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0a4 7a5ac0e1 System.Net.Connection.ReadStartNextRequest(System.Net.WebRequest, System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0e8 7a5b1119 System.Net.ConnectStream.CallDone(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult) 05ecf0fc 7a5b3b5a System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadChunkedSync(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf114 7a5b2b90 System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadWithoutValidation(Byte[], Int32, Int32, Boolean) 05ecf160 7a5b29cc System.Net.ConnectStream.Read(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1a0 79473cab System.IO.StreamReader.ReadBuffer(Char[], Int32, Int32, Boolean ByRef) 05ecf1c4 79473bd6 System.IO.StreamReader.Read(Char[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1e8 69c29119 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ReadData() 05ecf1f8 69c2ad70 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseDocumentContent() 05ecf20c 69c292d7 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Read() 05ecf21c 69c2929d System.Xml.XmlTextReader.Read() 05ecf220 6991b3e7 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapClientMessage, System.Net.WebResponse, System.IO.Stream, Boolean) 05ecf268 69919ed1 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(System.String, System.Object[])

    Read the article

  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

    Read the article

  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

    Read the article

  • Jquery click event propagation

    - by ozsenegal
    I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

    Read the article

  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Right way to return proxy model instance from a base model instance in Django ?

    - by sotangochips
    Say I have models: class Animal(models.Model): type = models.CharField(max_length=255) class Dog(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Woof!" class Meta: proxy = True class Cat(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Meow!" class Meta: proxy = True Let's say I want to do: animals = Animal.objects.all() for animal in animals: animal.make_sound() I want to get back a series of Woofs and Meows. Clearly, I could just define a make_sound in the original model that forks based on animal_type, but then every time I add a new animal type (imagine they're in different apps), I'd have to go in and edit that make_sound function. I'd rather just define proxy models and have them define the behavior themselves. From what I can tell, there's no way of returning mixed Cat or Dog instances, but I figured maybe I could define a "get_proxy_model" method on the main class that returns a cat or a dog model. Surely you could do this, and pass something like the primary key and then just do Cat.objects.get(pk = passed_in_primary_key). But that'd mean doing an extra query for data you already have which seems redundant. Is there any way to turn an animal into a cat or a dog instance in an efficient way? What's the right way to do what I want to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Strongly Typed DataSet column requires custom type to implement IXmlSerializable?

    - by Phil
    I have a strongly typed Dataset with a single table with three columns. These columns all contain custom types. DataColumn1 is of type Parent DataColumn2 is of type Child1 DataColumn3 is of type Child2 Here is what these classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlInclude(typeof(Child1)), XmlInclude(typeof(Child2))] public abstract class Parent { public int p1; } [Serializable] public class Child1 :Parent { public int c1; } [Serializable] public class Child2 : Parent { public int c1; } now, if I add a row with DataColumn1 being null, and DataColumns 2 and 3 populated and try to serialize it, it works: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(null, new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Works! } However, if I try to add a value to DataColumn1, it fails: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(new Child1(), new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Fails! } Here is the Exception: "Type 'WindowsFormsApplication4.Child1, WindowsFormsApplication4, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' does not implement IXmlSerializable interface therefore can not proceed with serialization." I have also tried using the XmlSerializer to serialize the dataset, but I get the same exception. Does anyone know of a way to get around this where I don't have to implement IXmlSerializable on all the Child classes? Alternatively, is there a way to implement IXmlSerializable keeping all default behavior the same (ie not having any class specific code in the ReadXml and WriteXml methods)

    Read the article

  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

    Read the article

  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

    Read the article

  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer not incrementing number for non-sibling <li> elements

    - by biagidp
    I've got some html that looks like this: <ol> <div> <li>one</li> </div> <div> <li>two</li> </div> <div> <li>three</li> </div> </ol> Which looks like this in Chrome/Firefox: 1. one 2. two 3. three But looks like this in IE: 1. one 1. two 1. three If I change the code so that the li element is the parent of the div element instead of the other way around (so that all the li elements are siblings) IE renders it correctly. Anyone know what causes this or if this is the intended working behavior of IE? Furthermore is one way technically more correct than the other? <div><li></li></div> VS. <li><div></div></li> Thanks, David

    Read the article

  • "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

    - by mem64k
    I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • MUD (game) design concept question about timed events.

    - by mudder
    I'm trying my hand at building a MUD (multiplayer interactive-fiction game) I'm in the design/conceptualizing phase and I've run into a problem that I can't come up with a solution for. I'm hoping some more experienced programmers will have some advice. Here's the problem as best I can explain it. When the player decides to perform an action he sends a command to the server. the server then processes the command, determines whether or not the action can be performed, and either does it or responds with a reason as to why it could not be done. One reason that an action might fail is that the player is busy doing something else. For instance, if a player is mid-fight and has just swung a massive broadsword, it might take 3 seconds before he can repeat this action. If the player attempts to swing again to soon, the game will respond indicating that he must wait x seconds before doing that. Now, this I can probably design without much trouble. The problem I'm having is how I can replicate this behavior from AI creatures. All of the events that are being performed by the server ON ITS OWN, aka not as an immediate reaction to something a player has done, will have to be time sensitive. Some evil monster has cast a spell on you but must wait 30 seconds before doing it again... I think I'll probably be adding all these events to some kind of event queue, but how can I make that event queue time sensitive?

    Read the article

  • Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

    - by Horace Loeb
    Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >