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  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

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  • wsdl xml parsing , maxlength problem after encoding of text

    - by MichaelD
    We are working together with another firm. our application communicates with the other application through WCF on our side and a custom implemented java wsdl handler on the other side. They specify the wsdl format and one of the rules is that a specific string cannot contain more then 15 characters. (normally it's 60, but i take 15 for easy example reasons) When we try to send the following string to them we get an error that the string is too long according to the wsdl: "example & test" this is a string of 14 characters, so it should be allowed the microsoft wcf parser translates this to "example &amp; test" . This encoded string is 18 characters long. Now what is the standaard behavior to check a maxlength defined in a message? Is it the encoded message or the decoded message? I would think it's the decoded message , but i ain't sure. If it is the encoded message, how should we handle this so we would know how we have to split the string?

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

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  • Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

    - by marc_s
    Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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  • Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

    - by Brian Sullivan
    I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <!-- Lots more like these --> </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

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  • Right way to return proxy model instance from a base model instance in Django ?

    - by sotangochips
    Say I have models: class Animal(models.Model): type = models.CharField(max_length=255) class Dog(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Woof!" class Meta: proxy = True class Cat(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Meow!" class Meta: proxy = True Let's say I want to do: animals = Animal.objects.all() for animal in animals: animal.make_sound() I want to get back a series of Woofs and Meows. Clearly, I could just define a make_sound in the original model that forks based on animal_type, but then every time I add a new animal type (imagine they're in different apps), I'd have to go in and edit that make_sound function. I'd rather just define proxy models and have them define the behavior themselves. From what I can tell, there's no way of returning mixed Cat or Dog instances, but I figured maybe I could define a "get_proxy_model" method on the main class that returns a cat or a dog model. Surely you could do this, and pass something like the primary key and then just do Cat.objects.get(pk = passed_in_primary_key). But that'd mean doing an extra query for data you already have which seems redundant. Is there any way to turn an animal into a cat or a dog instance in an efficient way? What's the right way to do what I want to achieve?

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  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • Loading an FLV in Facebox with jQuery for IE7 and IE8

    - by Trip
    It goes almost without saying, this works perfectly in Chrome, Firefox, and Safari. IE (any version) being the problem. Objective: I am trying to load JWplayer which loads an FLV from S3 in a Facebox popup. jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox() }) HTML (haml): %li#videoGirl = link_to 'What is HQchannel?', '#player', :rel => 'facebox' .grid_8.omega.alpha#player{:style => 'display: none;'} :javascript var so = new SWFObject('/flash/playerTrans.swf','mpl','640px','360px','0'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess','always'); so.addParam('allowfullscreen','true'); so.addParam('wmode','transparent'); so.addVariable('file', 'http://hometownquarterlyvideos.s3.amazonaws.com/whatishqchannel.flv&autostart=true&controlbar=none&repeat=always&image=/flash/video_girl/whatishqchannel.jpg&icons=false&screencolor=none&backcolor=FFFFFF&screenalpha=0&overstretch'); so.addVariable('overstretch', 'true') so.write('player'); Problem: Despite the video being set to display: none;. It begins playing anyway. When clicking on the activation div, IE7 pops up a wrong sized blank div with a nav (params are set to not show nav and scrubber), and no buttons on the nav and srubber work. IE8 shows the right size but same behavior with nav and scrubber not working, and blank screen. My guess: I'm thinking that the problem is with the javascript not being called at the right times. It seems it's loading the facebox without the jwplayer. At least I assume. Hence the reason why the nav is there. I thinking that it did not read the javascript for that.

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  • C# Web Service gets stuck waiting for lock, does not return

    - by blue
    We have a C#(2.0) application which talks to our server(in java) via web services. Lately we have started seeing following behavior in (ONLY)one of our lab machines(XP): Once in a while(every few days), one of the webservice request will just get stuck, will not return or timeout. Following is the stacktrace where it seem to be stuck. Have no clue what is going on here. Any pointer would be of great help. ESP EIP 05eceeec 7c90eb94 [GCFrame: 05eceeec] 05ecefbc 7c90eb94 [HelperMethodFrame_1OBJ: 05ecefbc] System.Threading.Monitor.Enter(System.Object) 05ecf014 7a5b0034 System.Net.ConnectionGroup.Disassociate(System.Net.Connection) 05ecf040 7a5aeaa7 System.Net.Connection.PrepareCloseConnectionSocket(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0a4 7a5ac0e1 System.Net.Connection.ReadStartNextRequest(System.Net.WebRequest, System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult ByRef) 05ecf0e8 7a5b1119 System.Net.ConnectStream.CallDone(System.Net.ConnectionReturnResult) 05ecf0fc 7a5b3b5a System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadChunkedSync(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf114 7a5b2b90 System.Net.ConnectStream.ReadWithoutValidation(Byte[], Int32, Int32, Boolean) 05ecf160 7a5b29cc System.Net.ConnectStream.Read(Byte[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1a0 79473cab System.IO.StreamReader.ReadBuffer(Char[], Int32, Int32, Boolean ByRef) 05ecf1c4 79473bd6 System.IO.StreamReader.Read(Char[], Int32, Int32) 05ecf1e8 69c29119 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ReadData() 05ecf1f8 69c2ad70 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseDocumentContent() 05ecf20c 69c292d7 System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Read() 05ecf21c 69c2929d System.Xml.XmlTextReader.Read() 05ecf220 6991b3e7 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapClientMessage, System.Net.WebResponse, System.IO.Stream, Boolean) 05ecf268 69919ed1 System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(System.String, System.Object[])

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  • Jquery click event propagation

    - by ozsenegal
    I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

    - by seth
    I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

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  • Zend hostname route doesn't match when it has child routes

    - by talisker
    I am implementing an Admin module, which contains the following routes: 'router' => array( 'routes' => array( 'admin' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Hostname', 'options' => array( 'route' => ':subdomain.mydomain.local', 'constraints' => array( 'subdomain' => 'admin', ), 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), 'priority' => 9000, 'may_terminate' => true, 'child_routes' => array( 'users' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/users', 'defaults' => array( 'module' => '__NAMESPACE__', 'controller' => 'Admin\Controller\Users', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), ) ), ), ), And this is the home route configuration: 'home' => array( 'type' => 'Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Literal', 'options' => array( 'route' => '/', 'defaults' => array( 'controller' => 'Application\Controller\Index', 'action' => 'index', ), ), ), When I try to access to http://admin.mydomain.com, the route match always with the homeroute, but if I remove all the child routes from the admin route, the behavior is correct and a http://admin.mydomain.com matches with the adminroute. Any idea?

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  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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  • Strongly Typed DataSet column requires custom type to implement IXmlSerializable?

    - by Phil
    I have a strongly typed Dataset with a single table with three columns. These columns all contain custom types. DataColumn1 is of type Parent DataColumn2 is of type Child1 DataColumn3 is of type Child2 Here is what these classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlInclude(typeof(Child1)), XmlInclude(typeof(Child2))] public abstract class Parent { public int p1; } [Serializable] public class Child1 :Parent { public int c1; } [Serializable] public class Child2 : Parent { public int c1; } now, if I add a row with DataColumn1 being null, and DataColumns 2 and 3 populated and try to serialize it, it works: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(null, new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Works! } However, if I try to add a value to DataColumn1, it fails: DataSet1 ds = new DataSet1(); ds.DataTable1.AddDataTable1Row(new Child1(), new Child1(), new Child2()); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); using (StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(sb)) { ds.WriteXml(writer);//Fails! } Here is the Exception: "Type 'WindowsFormsApplication4.Child1, WindowsFormsApplication4, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' does not implement IXmlSerializable interface therefore can not proceed with serialization." I have also tried using the XmlSerializer to serialize the dataset, but I get the same exception. Does anyone know of a way to get around this where I don't have to implement IXmlSerializable on all the Child classes? Alternatively, is there a way to implement IXmlSerializable keeping all default behavior the same (ie not having any class specific code in the ReadXml and WriteXml methods)

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  • Entangled text boxes

    - by user38329
    Hi StackOverflow, A mere Windows textbox greatly surprised me today. I have two unrelated text boxes inside an application. I can type in either text box and switch the focus by clicking on them. Then happens some event X, which I can't describe here for reasons given below. After this event happens, the two text boxes become "entangled" in an almost quantum way. Say, text box A was focused before X happened. When I click text box B to type in some text, the new text appears in text box A, whereas the blinking cursor happily moves along in text box B through the void, as if the text were there. No amount of clicking on either text boxes can resolve this. The cursor will always remain in B, whereas the text will always go to A. Message spying reveals that after the event X, the text boxes lose the ability to lose or gain focus. When I click on B, WM_LOSE_FOCUS does not come to A, and WM_SET_FOCUS does not come to B. (The rectangles and visibility of the boxes are OK.) The same thing happens in Windows XP and Windows 7. Now, event X: it's a big event in a third-party UI library which I cannot reverse-engineer in a timely manner. (Namely, docking a pane in wxAUI.) I am sure that this behavior is the result of incorrect WinAPI calls to the text boxes (garbage in - garbage out). I would like to know what could possibly cause such "textbox trip" to know where to start looking for the bug. Thanks!

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  • Internet Explorer not incrementing number for non-sibling <li> elements

    - by biagidp
    I've got some html that looks like this: <ol> <div> <li>one</li> </div> <div> <li>two</li> </div> <div> <li>three</li> </div> </ol> Which looks like this in Chrome/Firefox: 1. one 2. two 3. three But looks like this in IE: 1. one 1. two 1. three If I change the code so that the li element is the parent of the div element instead of the other way around (so that all the li elements are siblings) IE renders it correctly. Anyone know what causes this or if this is the intended working behavior of IE? Furthermore is one way technically more correct than the other? <div><li></li></div> VS. <li><div></div></li> Thanks, David

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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