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  • Handle cases where Nhibernate subclass does not exist

    - by kaykayman
    I have a scenario where I am using nhibernate to map records from one table to several different derived classes based on a discriminator. public class BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass0 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass1 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { } I then use nhibernate's DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn() method and alter the configuration to include <subclass name="DerivedClass0" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator0" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass1" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator1" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass2" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator2" /> so that when mapped, these classes are cast to their derived classes and not BaseClass. However, there are some records in my database which have a discriminator which does not have a corresponding subclass. In these cases, nHibernate throws an error: "Object with id: 'xxx' was not of the specified subclass..." Is there some way I can handle this, so that any records which do not have a corresponding subclass are cast to BaseClass rather than an error being thrown? I have simplified the above as much as possible, however it is worth noting that the XML is edited dynamically which is why I am referencing fluent nhibernate [DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn()] and XML at the same time. The following things (which would help) are not an option: I cannot correct the data to remove records which are invalid I cannot create subclasses for those records which do not have one I need to handle cases where nHibernate tries to map on a discriminator and finds that one does not exist.

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  • Toggle Blind Effect

    - by flipflopmedia
    Is there a way to alter this script to be used as the blind effect. // Andy Langton's show/hide/mini-accordion - updated 23/11/2009 // Latest version @ http://andylangton.co.uk/jquery-show-hide // this tells jquery to run the function below once the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // choose text for the show/hide link - can contain HTML (e.g. an image) var showText=''; var hideText=''; // initialise the visibility check var is_visible = false; // append show/hide links to the element directly preceding the element with a class of "toggle" $('.toggle').prev().append(' '+showText+''); // hide all of the elements with a class of 'toggle' $('.toggle').hide(); // capture clicks on the toggle links $('a.toggleLink').click(function() { // switch visibility is_visible = !is_visible; // toggle the display - uncomment the next line for a basic "accordion" style //$('.toggle').hide();$('a.toggleLink').html(showText); $(this).parent().next('.toggle').toggle('slow'); // return false so any link destination is not followed return false; }); }); FYI- Where it says: var showText=''; var hideText=''; It was originally: var showText='Show'; var hideText='Hide'; I deleted the Show/Hide Text because I am applying the link to different areas of text. I like the Blind effect, vs. this Toggle effect, and need to know how to apply it, if possible. I cannot find a basic Blind effect script that allows the use of applying the link to ANY text, vs. a button or static text. Thanks! Hope you can help! Tracy

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  • Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

    - by Telos
    I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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  • encrypt apache and mysql servers

    - by stormdrain
    I have a question about encrypting disks. I have 2 servers: 1 is apache for web/frontend and it talks to server 2 which is mysql. They are all for intranet only; no external access. I was looking into using PGP or GnuPG to encrypt the disks. I'm not clear, though, as to exactly how this would work. Where would the keys be stored? On the client? On apache? If there is a key on apache to access mysql, does there need to be a key for each user? If so, if key 1 is used to alter some data, would then that data be inaccessible to a user using key 2? And the apache key, would that only be accessible to users with local keys? Is encryption done on the fly? Does it degrade performance? What would be the best approach to encrypt the data on these servers, but have them accessible to users? Thanks!

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  • Procedure or function AppendDataCT has too many arguments specified

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS 2008 / SQL Server website application. I am a newbie to ASP.NET. I am getting the above compiler error. Can you give me advice on how to fix this? Code snippet: public static string AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary<int, string> dic) { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AW3_string"].ConnectionString; string errorMsg; try { SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter p1, p2, p3; foreach (string s in dt.Rows[1].ItemArray) { DataRow dr = dt.Rows[1]; // second row p1 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[0], (string)dr[0]); p1.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p2 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[1], (string)dr[1]); p2.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p3 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[2], (string)dr[2]); p3.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } conn2.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); It errors on this last line here. And here is that SP: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[AppendDataCT] @col1 VARCHAR(50), @col2 VARCHAR(50), @col3 VARCHAR(50) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @TEMP DATETIME SET @TEMP = (SELECT CONVERT (DATETIME, @col3)) INSERT INTO Person.ContactType (Name, ModifiedDate) VALUES( @col2, @TEMP) END

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  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

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  • Changing the admin edit window display values

    - by Henri
    I have a database table with e.g. a weight value e.g. CREATE TABLE product ( id SERIAL NOT NULL, product_name item_name NOT NULL, . . weight NUMERIC(7,3), -- the weight in kg . . CONSTRAINT PK_product PRIMARY KEY (id) ); This results is the model: class Product(models.Model): . weight = models.DecimalField(max_digits=7, decimal_places=3, blank=True, null=True) . I store the weight in kg's, i.e. 1 kg is stores as 1, 0.1 kg or 100g is stored as 0.1 To make it easier for the user, I display the weight in the Admin list display in grams by specifying: def show_weight(self): if self.weight: weight_in_g = self.weight * 1000 return '%0f' % weight_in_g So if a product weighs e.g. 0.5 kg and is stored in the database as such, the admin list display shows 500 Is there also a way to alter the number shown in the 'Change product' window. This window now shows the value extracted from the database, i.e. 0.5. This will confuse a user when I tell him with the help_text to enter the number in g, while seeing the number of kgs. Before saving the product I override save as follows: def save(self): if self.weight: self.weight = self.weight / 1000 This converts the number entered in grams to kgs.

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  • What issues to consider when rolling your own data-backend for Silverlight / AJAX on non-ASP.NET ser

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have read-only Silverlight and AJAX apps which read static text and XML files from a PHP/Apache server, which works very nicely with features such as asynchronous loading, lazy-loading only what I need for each page, loading in the background, developed a little query language to get a PHP script to create custom XML files etc. it's pragmatic read-only REST, and all works fast and fine for read-only sites. Now I want to also add the ability to write data from these apps to a database on the same PHP/Apache server. For those of you who have built similar data-access layers, what do I need to consider while building this, especially regarding security so that not just any client can write and alter my database, e.g.: check HTTP_USER_AGENT for security check REMOTE_ADDR for security require a special code for security, perhaps a list of TAN codes (such as banks use for online transactions) each which can only be used once, both the client and server have these I wonder if there is some kind of standard REST query I should lean on for e.g. building SQL-like statements in the URL parameters, e.g. http://www.thedatalayersite.com/query?insertinto=customers&... Any thoughts, notes from experience, ideas, gotchas, especially ideas on tightening down security in this endeavor would be helpful.

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  • OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

    - by Aaron
    I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

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  • How to modify ASCII table in C ? [closed]

    - by drigoSkalWalker
    Like this: My ASCII Chart 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A B C D E F 0 NUL SOH STX ETX EOT ENQ ACK BEL BS HT LF VT FF CR SO SI 1 DLE DC1 DC2 DC3 DC4 NAK SYN ETB CAN EM SUB ESC FS GS RS US 2 SP ! " # $ % & ' ( ) * + , - . / 3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 : ; ? 4 @ A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O 5 P Q R S T U V W X Y Z [ \ ] ^ _ 6 ` a b c d e f g h i j k l m n o 7 p q r s t u v w x y z { | } ~ DEL I want to call a function, alter the ASCII sequence in this function and when it returns, the ASCII sequence back to the original. Thanks in advance! EDIT: What I want is it: I want to change the order of chars, for examble, A is 65, if I want to make A equal a 0? without to make a function to do it, for example, I could accomplish it with a function that compare an array of chars, and store it in another way with the correct value (the new table), but do it is too expensive, is there another way? thanks in advance again!

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  • Communication between modules

    - by David Elentok
    I have an application that consists from the following three modules: Search (to search for objects) List (to display the search results) Painter (to allow me to edit objects) - this module isn't always loaded (Each object is a figure that I can edit in the painter). When I open an object in the painter it's added to the objects that are already in the painter and I can move it and alter it. I'm using an object similar to the EventAggregator to communicate between the modules. For example, to show the search results I publish a "ShowList" event that is caught by the List module (I'm not sure this is the best way to do this, if anyone has better idea please comment...). One of the features of the search module requires it to get the selected object in the painter (if the painter is available), and I'm not sure what would be the best way to do that... I thought of these solutions: Whenever the selected object in the painter changes it will publish a "PainterSelectedObjectChanged" event which will be caught by the search module and stored for later use. When the selected object is needed by the search module it will publish a "RequestingPainterSelectedObject" event which will be caught by the painter module. The painter module will then set the "SelectedObject" property in the EventArgs object, and when the publish is complete and we're back in the search module we will have the painter's selected object in the EventArgs object. What do you think? what is the right way to do this?

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  • Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

    - by Giffyguy
    I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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  • Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

    - by David
    I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

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  • Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

    - by manivineet
    I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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  • General many-to-many relationship problem ( Postgresql )

    - by David
    Hi, i have two tables: CREATE TABLE "public"."auctions" ( "id" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX2" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); and CREATE TABLE "public"."auction_values" ( "id" NUMERIC DEFAULT nextval('default_seq'::regclass) NOT NULL, "fk_auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "value" TEXT, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX1" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); if i want to create a many-to-many relationship on the auction_value_key like this: ALTER TABLE "public"."auction_values" ADD CONSTRAINT "auction_values_fk" FOREIGN KEY ("fk_auction_value_key") REFERENCES "public"."auctions"("auction_value_key") ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION NOT DEFERRABLE; i get this SQL error: ERROR: there is no unique constraint matching given keys for referenced table "auctions" Question: As you might see, i want "auction_values" to be be "reused" by different auctions without duplicating them for every auction... So i don't want a key relation on the "id" field in the auctions table... Am i thinking wrong here or what is the deal? ;) Thanks

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  • web design question (php/ajax)

    - by tom smith
    Hi guys... Hope this isn't a waste of your time. I'm working on a project, and it occured to me that there's a chunk of code out there, that should allow me to see how others have implemented this. I've got a project where I'm going to have a page, with a sel box. the user will select an item from the selList, and based on the item selected, a separate section of the page (areaB) will change in terms of the content/tbls being displayed. i then want to allow the user to go through a series of subpages in areaB, where the user goes through a submit/cancel/confirm process, where the stuff in areaB changes, with the rest of the page remaining the same... i'm trying to figure out the best approach to implement the on both client/server side. i could just have an ugly "if block" where i have abunch of logic, and i completely regen the page each time the user selects an action.. i could have an approach that might involve divs/frames, where i then just regen the targeted frame/div area.. is this even possible?? i could have some form of ajaxy process, which would only alter the targeted section(s) of the page... so.. i'm trying to talk to anyone who has ideas on how to do this, or more ideally, if you know of a good code (client/server) side example of this... that i can examine. i'd really appreciate it!! i've got a more detailed overview but didn't know if it would be cool to post it here... thanks.. tom

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  • C#: Easy access to the member of a singleton ICollection<> ?

    - by Rosarch
    I have an ICollection that I know will only ever have one member. Currently, I loop through it, knowing the loop will only ever run once, to grab the value. Is there a cleaner way to do this? I could alter the persistentState object to return single values, but that would complicate the rest of the interface. It's grabbing data from XML, and for the most part ICollections are appropriate. // worldMapLinks ensured to be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> worldMapLinks = persistentState.GetAllOfType("worldMapLink"); string levelName = ""; //worldMapLinks.GetEnumerator().Current['filePath']; // this loop will only run once foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in worldMapLinks) // hacky hack hack hack { levelName = dict["filePath"]; } // proceed with levelName loadLevel(levelName); Here is another example of the same issue: // meta will be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> meta = persistentState.GetAllOfType("meta"); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in meta) // this loop should only run once. HACKS. { currentLevelName = dict["name"]; currentLevelCaption = dict["teaserCaption"]; } Yet another example: private Vector2 startPositionOfKV(ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> dicts) { Vector2 result = new Vector2(); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in dicts) // this loop will only ever run once { result.X = Single.Parse(dict["x"]); result.Y = Single.Parse(dict["y"]); } return result; }

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  • How can I initialize a QTMovie object with certain attributes using writable data?

    - by c-had
    I'm trying to create an empty QTMovie object that I can add segments to, and then play. This is easy to do with something like: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initToWritableData:[NSMutableData dataWithCapacity:1048576] error:&error]; I can then use -insertSegmentOfMovie to insert segments from other movies into this one so I can play it back. The problem is that I also need to set a certain attribute when creating the QTMovie object. In particular, I need to set the QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute attribute, so that I can alter playback speed during playback without changing pitch. This attribute cannot be written after the movie is initialized. So, I can create the QTMovie object like this: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute, nil] error:&error]; Unfortunately, this is not editable. I've tried setting the QTMovieEditableAttribute as well on creation, but it does not help. I still get an exception when I try to insert anything into this movie. I presume this is because there is no writable file or data reference associated with the QTMovie. Any ideas on how to solve this?

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  • How to insert and call by row and column into sqlite3 python

    - by user291071
    Lets say i have a simple array of x rows and y columns with corresponding values, What is the best method to do 3 things? How to insert, update a value at a specific row column? How to select a value for each row and column, import sqlite3 con = sqlite3.connect('simple.db') c = con.cursor() c.execute('''create table simple (links text)''') con.commit() dic = {'x1':{'y1':1.0,'y2':0.0},'x2':{'y1':0.0,'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5},'x3':{'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5}} ucols = {} ## my current thoughts are collect all row values and all column values from dic and populate table row and columns accordingly how to call by row and column i havn't figured out yet ##populate rows in first column for row in dic: print row c.execute("""insert into simple ('links') values ('%s')"""%row) con.commit() ##unique columns for row in dic: print row for col in dic[row]: print col ucols[col]=dic[row][col] ##populate columns for col in ucols: print col c.execute("alter table simple add column '%s' 'float'" % col) con.commit() #functions needed ##insert values into sql by row x and column y?how to do this e.g. x1 and y2 should put in 0.0 ##I tried as follows didn't work for row in dic: for col in dic[row]: val =dic[row][col] c.execute("""update simple SET '%s' = '%f' WHERE 'links'='%s'"""%(col,val,row)) con.commit() ##update value at a specific row x and column y? ## select a value at a specific row x and column y?

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  • SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

    - by jlichauc
    Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

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  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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  • Configuring mod_rewrite and mod_jk for Apache 2.2 and JBoss 4.2.3

    - by The Pretender
    Hello! My problem is as follows: I have JBoss 4.2.3 application server with AJP 1.3 connector running on one host under Windows (192.168.1.2 for my test environment) and Apache 2.2.14 running on another FreeBSD box (192.168.1.10). Apache acts as a "front gate" for all requests and sends them to JBoss via mod_jk. Everything was working fine until I had to do some SEO optimizations. These optimizations include SEF urls, so i decided to use mod_rewrite for Apache to alter requests before they are sent to JBoss. Basically, I nedd to implement 2 rules: Redirect old rules like "http://hostname/directory/" to "http://hostname/" with permanent redirect Forward urls like "http://hostname/wtf/123/" to "http://hostname/wtf/view.htm?id=123" so that end user doesn't see the "ugly" URL (the actual rewrite). Here is my Apache config for test virtual host: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/usr/local/www/dummy" ServerName 192.168.1.10 <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule /directory/(.*) /$1 [R=permanent,L] RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 </IfModule> JkMount /* jsp-hostname ErrorLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-access_log" common </VirtualHost> The problem is that second rewrite rule doesn't work. Requests slip through to JBoss unchanged, so I get Tomcat 404 error. But if I add redirect flag to the second rule like RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 [R,L] it works like a charm. But redirect is not what I need here :) . I suspect that the problem is that requests are forwarded to the another host (192.168.1.2), but I really don't have any idea on how to make it work. Any help would be appreciated :)

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  • Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

    - by damix911
    I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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