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• Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

  - by Dave

  A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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• Error displaying a WinForm in Design mode with a custom control on it.

  - by George

  I have a UserControl that is part of a Class library. I reference this project from my solution. This adds a control from the referenced project to my toolbox. I add tghe control to a form. Everything looks good, I compile all and run. Perfect... But when I close the .frm with the control on it and re-open it, I get this error. The code continues to run. It may have something to do with namespaces. The original namespace was simply "Design" and this was ambiguous and conflicting so i decided to rename it. I think that's when my problems began. To prevent possible data loss before loading the designer, the following errors must be resolved: 2 Errors Ignore and Continue Why am I seeing this page? Could not find type 'Besi.Winforms.HtmlEditor.Editor'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built using settings for your current platform or Any CPU. Instances of this error (1) 1. There is no stack trace or error line information available for this error. Help with this error Could not find an associated help topic for this error. Check Windows Forms Design-Time error list Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error The variable 'Editor1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. Go to code Instances of this error (1) 1. BesiAdmin frmOrder.Designer.vb Line:775 Column:1 Show Call Stack at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.Error(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String exceptionText, String helpLink) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeStatement(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeStatement statement) Help with this error MSDN Help Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error

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• ASP MVC: Submitting a form with nested user controls

  - by Nigel

  I'm fairly new to ASP MVC so go easy :). I have a form that contains a number of user controls (partial views, as in System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl), each with their own view models, and some of those user controls have nested user controls within them. I intended to reuse these user controls so I built up the form using a hierarchy in this way and pass the form a parent view model that contains all the user controls' view models within it. For example: Parent Page (with form and ParentViewModel) -->ChildControl1 (uses ViewModel1 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel1 property) -->ChildControl2 (uses ViewModel2 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel2 property) -->ChildControl3 (uses ViewModel3 which is passed from ViewModel2.ViewModel3 property) I hope this makes sense... My question is how do I retrieve the view data when the form is submitted? It seems the view data cannot bind to the ParentViewModel: public string Save(ParentViewModel viewData)... as viewData.ViewModel1 and viewData.ViewModel2 are always null. Is there a way I can perform a custom binding? Ultimately I need the form to be able to cope with a dynamic number of user controls and perform an asynchronous submission without postback. I'll cross those bridges when I come to them but I mention it now so any answer won't preclude this functionality. Many thanks.

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• Strange C++ performance difference?

  - by STingRaySC

  I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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• WCF Double Hop questions about Security and Binding.

  - by Ken Maglio

  Background information: .Net Website which calls a service (aka external service) facade on an app server in the DMZ. This external service then calls the internal service which is on our internal app server. From there that internal service calls a stored procedure (Linq to SQL Classes), and passes the serialized data back though to the external service, and from there back to the website. We've done this so any communication goes through an external layer (our external app server) and allows interoperability; we access our data just like our clients consuming our services. We've gotten to the point in our development where we have completed the system and it all works, the double hop acts as it should. However now we are working on securing the entire process. We are looking at using TransportWithMessageCredentials. We want to have WS2007HttpBinding for the external for interoperability, but then netTCPBinding for the bridge through the firewall for security and speed. Questions: If we choose WS2007HttpBinding as the external services binding, and netTCPBinding for the internal service is this possible? I know WS-* supports this as does netTCP, however do they play nice when passing credential information like user/pass? If we go to Kerberos, will this impact anything? We may want to do impersonation in the future. If you can when you answer post any reference links about why you're answering the way you are, that would be very helpful to us. Thanks!

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• How do I repopulate the view model in ASP.NET MVC 2 after a validation error?

  - by Keltex

  I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2 and here's the issue. My View Model looks something like this. It includes some fields which are edited by the user and others which are used for display purposes. Here's a simple version public class MyModel { public decimal Price { get; set; } // for view purpose only [Required(ErrorMessage="Name Required")] public string Name { get; set; } } The controller looks something like this: public ActionResult Start(MyModel rec) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } The issue is when there's a validation error and I call View(rec), I'm not sure the best way to populate my view model with the values that are displayed only. The old way of doing it, where I pass in a form collection, I would do something like this: public ActionResult Start(FormCollection collection) { var rec = Repository.LoadModel(); UpdateModel(rec); if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } But doing this, I get an error on UpdateModel(rec): The model of type 'MyModel' could not be updated. Any ideas?

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• REST application, Transactions, Cache drop

  - by Julian Davchev

  Hi, I am building REST API in php with memcache layer on top for caching all resources. After some reading experience it turns out it's best when documents are as simple as posible...mainly due to dropping cache sequences. So if there is 'building','room' entities for the 'room' document I would only place the id of the 'building' and not the whole data of it. Then on api client side I would merge data as needed. Problem becomes when I need to update/insert (most cases more than one table). I update one resource but on second update system fails or whatever and there becomes database inconsistancies. I see several solutions: 1. Implement rest transactions which I find wrong and complex as idea is to be stateless and easy. 2. On update/insert actions I pass more complex data (not single entities) so I can force transactions on API level. But this will make it weird that your GET document structure is same as PUT document structure. And again somehow make drop sequences complex. Any pointers are more than welcome. Cheers,

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• Building simple Reddit scraper

  - by Bazant Fundator

  Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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• Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

  - by Dave George

  I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

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• Binding Data to a TextBlock using Domain Data Source

  - by TFisher

  I have a map with hotspots for each state (done in Expression Blend). I capture each MouseEnter of the state (1 thru 50). I pass that into my Domain Data Source: Dim activebox As Path = TryCast(sender, Path) activebox.Fill = mouseOverColor Dim StateID As Integer = CInt(Right(activebox.Name, 2)) Dim _StateContext As New StateContext myDataGrid.ItemsSource = _StateContext.States _StateContext.Load(_StateContext.GetStateByStateIDQuery(StateID.Text)) The above works fine for a datagrid, listbox and even a dataform. But I created a popup with a stackpanel that has textblocks. popupStatesBox.DataContext = ?????????????? popupStatesBox.IsOpen = True 'popup does open but has no data -- popupStatesBox.xaml <Popup x:Name="popupStatsBox" Margin="8,35,0,8" DataContext="{Binding}" IsOpen="false" Width="268" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <StackPanel x:Name="Layout" Background="Black"> <TextBlock x:Name="tbState" Text="{Binding StateName /> <TextBlock x:Name="tbAbbrev" Text="{Binding Abbreviation}" /> </StackPanel> </Popup> How do I get the textblocks to display the values from the _StateContext. StackPanel has DataContext but no ItemsSource. What am I missing?

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• Getting EXC_BAD_ACCESS without any helpful msg from NSZombieEnabled

  - by nefsu

  Hello guys. I'm a newbie to iphone development and I've been struggling with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS error I got a couple of days ago. I'm basically taking the Stanford iphone class independently and I am trying to pass an array of NSManagedObjects to a TableViewController that's supposed to display them. The application launches in the simulator and displays the data in the tableView but it immediately errors out with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I followed instructions here and other places on how to use NSZombieEnabled to identify prematurely released objects but this one comes without any helpful msgs even with NSZombieEnabled. My guess is it must be caused by something trying to access unassigned memory that wasn't released through release/autorelease. Or else it would have been picked up as zombie object like the other errors I have been able to fix. I'm not a c expert but does that mean something like that could happen if I were to declare an object and send it a message without ever instantiating it? I looked through my code to see if I had anything like that and I came up empty. I have the stack trace in the debugger for this but I'm not sure how to make use of it. I'm a little frustrated because I can't use breakpoints in the code to narrow down the problem any further since it seems to happen after the app has finished loading. I thought the app would just stay idle if there was no possible user interaction. Is it failing at the tail end of the load where I can't easy see it or is jut doing stuff in the background after it's done loading. And I would much appreciate any tips on how to read the stacktrace for this. Thanks for the help guys.

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• Odd behaviour with PHP's in_array function.

  - by animuson

  I have a function that checks multiple form items and returns either boolean(true) if the check passed or the name of the check that was run if it didn't pass. I built the function to run multiple checks at once, so it will return an array of these results (one result for each check that was run). When I run the function, I get this array result: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => password [2] => birthday ) // print_r array(3) { [0]=> bool(true) [1]=> string(8) "password" [2]=> string(8) "birthday" } // var_dump The 'username' check passed and the 'password' and 'birthday' checks both failed. Then I am using simple in_array statements to determine which ones failed, like so: $results = $ani->e->vld->simulate("register.php", $checks); die(var_dump($results)); // Added after to see what array was being returned if (in_array("username", $results)) // do something if (in_array("password", $results)) // do something if (in_array("birthday", $results)) // do something The problem I'm having is that the 'username' line is still executing, even those 'username' is not in the array. It executes all three statements as if they were all true for some reason. Why is this? I thought maybe that the bool(true) was automatically causing the function to return true for every result without checking the rest of the array, but I couldn't find any documentation that would suggest that very odd functionality.

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• Some general C questions.

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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• Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

  - by Reiste

  We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

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• Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

  - by Paul H

  I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

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• Classic ASP to WCF using the Service Moniker

  - by Jab

  I am trying to consume a WCF logging service from classic ASP without deploy a Com wrapper. I found a method of doing so here. Here is the vb script, simplified. Dim addr addr = "service:mexAddress=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex""," _ & "address=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/classic/""," _ & "contract=""ILoggingManagerClassic"", contractNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""," _ & "binding=""NetNamedPipeBinding_ILoggingManagerClassic"", bindingNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""" set objErrorLogger = GetObject(addr) Dim strError : strError = objErrorLogger.LogError("blahblah") This works on Server 2008, but fails with this error on Server 2003. Failed to do mex retrieval:Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex.. Only when running through ASP does it fail, a sample VBS file on the same machine using the same code works fine. I think it may be permission related, but don't know where to begin. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT - let me clarify that the WCF host is a windows service running as NETWORK SERVICE. If this belongs on server fault, a moderator can move it. I have an account there as well.

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• Compiling Visual c++ programs from the command line and msvcr90.dll

  - by Stanley kelly

  Hi, When I compile my Visual c++ 2008 express program from inside the IDE and redistribute it on another computer, It starts up fine without any dll dependencies that I haven't accounted for. When I compile the same program from the visual c++ 2008 command line under the start menu and redistribute it to the other computer, it looks for msvcr90.dll at start-up. Here is how it is compiled from the command line cl /Fomain.obj /c main.cpp /nologo -O2 -DNDEBUG /MD /ID:(list of include directories) link /nologo /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /ENTRY:mainCRTStartup /OUT:Build\myprogram.ex e /LIBPATH:D:\libs (list of libraries) and here is how the IDE builds it based on the relevant parts of the build log. /O2 /Oi /GL /I clude" /I (list of includes) /D "WIN32" /D "NDEBUG" /D "_CONSOLE" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /FD /EHsc /MD /Gy /Yu"stdafx.h" /Fp"Release\myprogram" /Fo"Release\\" /Fd"Release\vc90.pdb" /W3 /c /Zi /TP /wd4250 /vd2 Creating command line "cl.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000118003188.rsp /nologo /errorReport:prompt" /OUT:"D:\myprgram\Release\myprgram.exe" /INCREMENTAL:NO /LIBPATH:"d:\gtkmm\lib" /MANIFEST /MANIFESTFILE:"Release\myprogam.exe.intermediate.manifest" /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /DEBUG /PDB:"d:\myprogram\Release\myprogram.pdb" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /OPT:REF /OPT:ICF /LTCG /ENTRY:"mainCRTStartup" /DYNAMICBASE /NXCOMPAT /MACHINE:X86 (list of libraries) Creating command line "link.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000218003188.rsp /NOLOGO /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT" /outputresource:"..\Release\myprogram.exe;#1" /manifest .\Release\myprogram.exe.intermediate.manifest Creating command line "mt.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000318003188.rsp /nologo" I would like to be able to compile it from the command line and not have it look for such a late version of the runtime dll, like the version compiled from the IDE seems not to do. Both versions pass /MD to the compiler, so i am not sure what to do.

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• custom C++ boost::lambda expression help

  - by aaa

  hello. A little bit of background: I have some strange multiple nested loops which I converted to flat work queue (basically collapse single index loops to single multi-index loop). right now each loop is hand coded. I am trying to generalized approach to work with any bounds using lambda expressions: For example: // RANGE(i,I,N) is basically a macro to generate `int i = I; i < N; ++i ` // for (RANGE(lb, N)) { // for (RANGE(jb, N)) { // for (RANGE(kb, max(lb, jb), N)) { // for (RANGE(ib, jb, kb+1)) { // is equivalent to something like (overload , to produce range) flat<1, 3, 2, 4>((_2, _3+1), (max(_4,_3), N), N, N) the internals of flat are something like: template<size_t I1, size_t I2, ..., class L1_, class L2, ..._> boost::array<int,4> flat(L1_ L1, L2_ L2, ...){ //boost::array<int,4> current; class variable bool advance; L2_ l2 = L2.bind(current); // bind current value to lambda { L1_ l1 = L1.bind(current); //bind current value to innermost lambda l1.next(); advance = !(l1 < l1.upper()); // some internal logic if (advance) { l2.next(); current[0] = l1.lower(); } } //..., } my question is, can you give me some ideas how to write lambda (derived from boost) which can be bound to index array reference to return upper, lower bounds according to lambda expression? thank you much

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• ASP.NET MVC Model Binding into a List

  - by Maxim Z.

  In my ASP.NET MVC site, part of a feature allows the user to enter the hours when a certain venue is open. I've decided to store these hours in a VenueHours table in my database, with a FK-to-PK relationship to a Venues table, as well as DayOfWeek, OpeningTime, and ClosingTime parameters. In my View, I want to allow the user to only input the times they know about; in other words, some days may not be filled in for a Venue. I'm thinking of creating checkboxes that the user can check to enable the OpeningTime and ClosingTime fields for the DayOfWeek that the checkbox belongs to. My question relates to how to pass this information to my HttpPost Controller Action. As I know the maximum amount of Days that can be passed in (7), I could of course just write 7 nullable VenueHour parameters into my Action, but I'm sure there's a better way. Can I somehow bind the View information into a List that is passed to my Action? This will also help me if I run into a scenario where there is no limit to how much information the user can fill in.

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• Seeking help with a MT design pattern

  - by SamG

  I have a queue of 1000 work items and a n-proc machine (assume n = 4).The main thread spawns n (=4) worker threads at a time ( 25 outer iterations) and waits for all threads to complete before processing the next n (=4) items until the entire queue is processed for(i= 0 to queue.Length / numprocs) for(j= 0 to numprocs) { CreateThread(WorkerThread,WorkItem) } WaitForMultipleObjects(threadHandle[]) The work done by each (worker) thread is not homogeneous.Therefore in 1 batch (of n) if thread 1 spends 1000 s doing work and rest of the 3 threads only 1 s , above design is inefficient,becaue after 1 sec other 3 processors are idling. Besides there is no pooling - 1000 distinct threads are being created How do I use the NT thread pool (I am not familiar enough- hence the long winded question) and QueueUserWorkitem to achieve the above. The following constraints should hold The main thread requires that all worker items are processed before it can proceed.So I would think that a waitall like construct above is required I want to create as many threads as processors (ie not 1000 threads at a time) Also I dont want to create 1000 distinct events, pass to the worker thread, and wait on all events using the QueueUserWorkitem API or otherwise Exisitng code is in C++.Prefer C++ because I dont know c# I suspect that the above is a very common pattern and was looking for input from you folks.

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• Google Contacts Error: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required

  - by Ali

  Hi guys I'm following the example code as defined on this website: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/x-phpgooglecontact/index.html I want to be able to integrate with my google apps account and play around with teh contacts. However I get this error whenever I try to run the modify contacts code: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required This is my code: Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Http_Client'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Query'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Feed'); $client = getGoogleClient('cp'); // this is a function I made - its working fine $client->setHeaders('If-Match: *'); $gdata = new Zend_Gdata($client); $gdata->setMajorProtocolVersion(3); $query = new Zend_Gdata_Query($id);// id is the google reference $entry = $gdata->getEntry($query); $xml = simplexml_load_string($entry->getXML()); $xml->name->fullName = trim($contact->first_name).' '.trim($contact->last_name); $entryResult = $gdata->updateEntry($xml->saveXML(), $id);

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• Semantic Grid System, Media Query issue

  - by Andy

  I'm using the Semantic Grid System to build a responsive site. However, something isn't quite right with the media queries that should obviously kick in once it hits a particular screen size. I'll reference what i mean with their example on the website : if I view this on my iPhone for example, given that it is supposed to adjust to a single column structure on a mobile device, it still throws out the web version of the page. That is true for both Safari and Chrome on my iPhone. However, if I use the RWD bookmarklet to check it's appearance at different resolutions it appears as expected for the mobile resolution. Also, ironically, if I resize the page in Safari on my desktop it also adjusts accordingly once I get down to the approriate screen size, but not in Firefox. The media query that it uses once it hits 720px is @media screen and (max-width: 720px) { #maincolumn, #sidebar { .column(12); margin-bottom: 1em; } } and I might be wide of the mark here but I think that must be the issue. But given that this is directly from the semantic.gs website I'm not inclined to question their own code. Any idea what the problem might be?

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• Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

  - by Dr. Zim

  Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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• Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

  - by Davis

  Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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• Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

  - by Eric Sniff

  Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

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