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Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

- by Eric Sniff

Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

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Hooking thread exit

- by mackenir

Is there a way for me to hook the exit of managed threads (i.e. run some code on a thread, just before it exits?) I've developed a mechanism for hooking thread exit that works for some threads. Step 1: develop a 'hook' STA COM class that takes a callback function and calls it in its destructor. Step 2: create a ThreadStatic instance of this object on the thread I want to hook, and pass the object a managed delegate converted to an unmanaged function pointer. The delegate then gets called on thread exit (since the CLR calls IUnknown::Release on all STA COM RCWs as part of thread exit). This mechanism works on, for example, worker threads that I create in code using the Thread class. However, it doesn't seem to work for the application's main thread (be it a console or windows app). The 'hook' COM object seems to be deleted too late in the shutdown process and the attempt to call the delegate fails. (The reason I want to implement this facility is so I can run some native COM code on the exiting thread that works with STA COM objects that were created on the thread, before it's 'too late' (i.e. before the thread has exited, and it's no longer possible to work with STA COM objects on that thread.))

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Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

- by Dr. Zim

Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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What is the WCF equivalent?

- by klausbyskov

I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

- by Curtis Gibby

My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

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Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

- by BrynJ

I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

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form with multiple upload but allow no upload on edit problems

- by minus4

hiya i have a section that when created takes in images, however when you edit this item i dont want them to re-upload none changes images just to change a description or name. i have created this that deals with uploading files: public void UploadFiles(string currentFileName, FormCollection form) { // loop through all files in form post foreach (string file in Request.Files) { HttpPostedFileBase hpf = Request.Files[file]; // if no file is uploaded, we could be editing so set to current value if (hpf.ContentLength == 0) { form[file] = currentFileName; } else { //rename the file unique so we dont clash with names var filename = hpf.FileName.Replace(" ", "_").Replace(".", DateTime.Now.Date.Ticks + "."); UploadFileName = filename; hpf.SaveAs(Server.MapPath("~/Content/custom/" + filename)); // set the name of the file in our post to the new name form[file] = UploadFileName; } } // ensure value is still sent when no files are uploaded on edit if(Request.Files.Count <= 0) { UploadFileName = currentFileName; } } all works fine when only one image is required (CurrentFileName), however there is now a new image available taking it to a total of 2 images in the database therefor currentFileName is obsolete. has anyone tackled this and how as i have hit a wall with this one. thought of string[] currentFiles but cant see how to match this into string file in Request.Files. if it helps i am also working with models for the form so i could pass over the model but i dont think your able to do model.file without some kind of reflection. help much appreciated. thanks

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Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

- by Paul H

I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

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C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

- by Ngu Soon Hui

I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

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SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services and the Report Viewer

- by Kendra

I am having an issue embedding my report into an aspx page. Here's my setup: 1 Server running SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services 1 Workstation running XP and VS 2005 The server is not on a domain. Reporting Services is a default installation. I have one report called TestMe in a folder called TestReports using a shared datasource. If I view the report in Report Manager, it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver url it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver?/TestReports/TestMe it renders fine. If I try to view the report using http ://myserver/reportserver/TestReports/TestMe, it just goes to the folder navigation page of the home directory. My web application is impersonating somebody specific to get around the server not being on a domain. When I call the report from the report viewer using http ://myserver/reportserver as the server and /TestReports/TestMe as the path I get this error: For security reasons DTD is prohibited in this XML document. To enable DTD processing set the ProhibitDtd property on XmlReaderSettings to false and pass the settings into XmlReader.Create method. When I change the server to http ://myserver/reportserver? I get this error when I run the report: Client found response content type of '', but expected 'text/xml'. The request failed with an empty response. I have been searching for a while and haven't found anything that fixes my issue. Please let me know if there is more information needed. Thanks in advance, Kendra

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Ruby on Rails / Yellow Maps For Ruby Plugin woes...

- by Zach

Okay I've read through the plugin comments and the docs as well and I have yet to come up with an answer as to how to do this. Here's my problem I want to use the :info_window_tabs and the :icon option, but I don't know what format to pass my information in. According to the documentation the following code should be correct. Here's my code: @mapper.overlay_init(GMarker.new([map.lat, map.lng], :title => map.name, :info_window_tabs => [ {:tab => "HTML", :content => @marker_html}, {:tab => "Attachments", :content => "stuff"}], :icon => { :image => "../images/icon.png" })) The readme and documentation can be viewed here. And the relevant ruby file that I am trying to interact with, including the author's comments, can be viewed here. I have tried the #rubyonrails channel in IRC as well as emailing the author directly and reporting an issue at GitHub. It really is just a question of syntax. Thanks!

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SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

- by Nev_Rahd

Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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How to avoid using this in a contructor

- by Paralife

I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

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Semantic Grid System, Media Query issue

- by Andy

I'm using the Semantic Grid System to build a responsive site. However, something isn't quite right with the media queries that should obviously kick in once it hits a particular screen size. I'll reference what i mean with their example on the website : if I view this on my iPhone for example, given that it is supposed to adjust to a single column structure on a mobile device, it still throws out the web version of the page. That is true for both Safari and Chrome on my iPhone. However, if I use the RWD bookmarklet to check it's appearance at different resolutions it appears as expected for the mobile resolution. Also, ironically, if I resize the page in Safari on my desktop it also adjusts accordingly once I get down to the approriate screen size, but not in Firefox. The media query that it uses once it hits 720px is @media screen and (max-width: 720px) { #maincolumn, #sidebar { .column(12); margin-bottom: 1em; } } and I might be wide of the mark here but I think that must be the issue. But given that this is directly from the semantic.gs website I'm not inclined to question their own code. Any idea what the problem might be?

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How to suppress quotes in Powershell commands to executables

- by David Gladfelter

Is there any way to supress the enclosing quotation marks around each command-line argument that powershell likes to generate and then pass to external executables for command line arguments that have spaces in them? Here's the situation: One way to unpack many installers is a command of the form: msiexec /a <packagename> /qn TARGETDIR="<path to folder with spaces>" Trying to execute this from powershell has proven quite difficult. Powershell likes to enclose parameters with spaces in double-quotes. The following lines: msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn 'TARGETDIR="c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn $('TARGETDIR="c:\some path"') $td = '"c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn TARGETDIR=$td All result in the following command line (as reported by the Win32 GetCommandLine() api): "msiexec" /a somepackage.msi /qn "TARGETDIR="c:\some path"" This command line: msiexec /a somepackage.msi TARGETDIR="c:\some path" /qn results in "msiexec" /a fooinstaller.msi "TARGETDIR=c:\some path" /qn It seems that Powershell likes to enclose the results of expressions meant to represent one argument in quotation marks when passing them to external executables. This works fine for most executables. However, MsiExec is very specific about the quoting rules it wants and won't accept any of the command lines Powershell generates for paths have have spaces in them. Is there any way to suppress this behavior?

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dynamic link_to_remote in rails with jquery

- by Claus Lensbøl

Hi I'm trying to pass a string with a link_to_remote call as the :id, and the string should be collected from an input field with and id of "movie_title". <div id="search_list">Nothing here yet</div> <br /> <% semantic_form_for @movie do |f| %> <% f.inputs do -%> <%= f.input :title, :class => "movie_title" %> <%= link_to_remote( 'Search...', { :url => { :action => :imdb_search, :id => "'+$('\#movie_title').value+'" } }, { :title => "Search for this movie", :class => "imdb_search" } ) -%> [...removed text that does not matter...] <% end -%> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> I keep getting an javascript error, and if I remove the # from the jquery in the link, it returns "Undefined". The link I get is: <a class="imdb_search" href="#" onclick="jQuery.ajax({data:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('yHPHYTZsPTQLi9JYSauUYcoie/pqPPk2uHBTN0PzNsQ='), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/movies/imdb_search/'+$('%23movie_title').value+''}); return false;" title="Search for this movie">Search...</a> So I want the link updated with the contents of movie_title. How do I do that?

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Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

- by James Black

I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

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Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

- by Benjol

OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

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Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

- by Mark Lehmacher

Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

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Grails bean-fields plugin

- by Don

Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

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Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

- by Chrispix

I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android">  <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" />  <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" />  <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

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Getting rid of the Expires node in the WS security header

- by Nick

From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

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iPhone Objective-C service handlers

- by Xavi Colomer

Hello community! I am a as3 developer, I am used to use handlers everytime I launch an event and I am wondering which is the best way / practice to do that in Objective C. Let's say I want to call a diferent services from my backend. In as3 would be something like this to listent to the finish event: service.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished ) service2.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished2 ) But how can I do the same in Objective C? The problem is I already created the protocols and delegates, but how can I separate each response from the server? For example: -(void)callService:( NSString * )methodName withParameters:(NSMutableDictionary *) parameters { ... if (self.delegate != NULL && [self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:)]) { [delegate serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:data]; } } Well I'm trying to create a generic delegate here, so how can I separate each response for every service? My first idea is that maybe I should return the name of the service method in the delegate call to identify each service. Maybe I should create a UID for each service and pass it the same way... Any idea?

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Alternative to jQuery's .toggle() method that supports eventData?

- by Bungle

The jQuery documentation for the .toggle() method states: The .toggle() method is provided for convenience. It is relatively straightforward to implement the same behavior by hand, and this can be necessary if the assumptions built into .toggle() prove limiting. The assumptions built into .toggle have proven limiting for my current task, but the documentation doesn't elaborate on how to implement the same behavior. I need to pass eventData to the handler functions provided to toggle(), but it appears that only .bind() will support this, not .toggle(). My first inclination is to use a flag global to a single handler function to store the click state. In other words, rather than: $('a').toggle(function() { alert('odd number of clicks'); }, function() { alert('even number of clicks'); }); do this: var clicks = true; $('a').click(function() { if (clicks) { alert('odd number of clicks'); clicks = false; } else { alert('even number of clicks'); clicks = true; } }); I haven't tested the latter, but I suspect it would work. Is this the best way to do something like this, or is there a better way that I'm missing? Thanks!

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Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

- by Dr. DOT

I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made):  This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present):  Thanks.

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