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Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

- by Dr. DOT

I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made):  This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present):  Thanks.

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Getting Started with AJAX ToolKit Controls

- by Aviran

I am trying to make my first AJAX Control and I get error. I probbly missed some steps but I cann't find them eventhough I read many tutorials, probbly since I am new in AJAX, so I need to be guided step-by-step. These are the steps I've already done: Downloading AJAX ToolKit. Adding These Controls to the ToolBox. creating new ASP.NET Website (I heard about AJAX-Enabled Option, but I dont have this option) Adding a AJAX Tool. And thats it. I read that I need to register add AjaxControlToolkit.dll in application bin folder, but I dont know how to do that and I dont have Bin Folder in my website, only App_Data Folder. than I need to add this to the web config: <add tagPrefix="ajaxToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" assembly="AjaxControlToolkit"/> than I need to add this to my website: <asp:ScriptManager ID="scriptmanager1" EnablePartialRendering="true" runat="Server" /> This is the error I receive: "Compilation Error Description: An error occurred during the compilation of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific error details and modify your source code appropriately. Compiler Error Message: CS0012: The type 'System.Web.UI.ExtenderControl' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35'." Source Error: Line 16: <br /> Line 17: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" Width="229px"></asp:Label><br /> Line 18: <asp:ConfirmButtonExtender ID="ConfirmButtonExtender1" runat="server" ConfirmText="are you sure" Line 19: TargetControlID="Button1"> Line 20: </asp:ConfirmButtonExtender> Does anyone know how can I solve this error?

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boost::binding that which is already bound

- by PaulH

I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

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Getting rid of the Expires node in the WS security header

- by Nick

From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

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Idiomatic Scala way to deal with base vs derived class field names?

- by Gregor Scheidt

Consider the following base and derived classes in Scala: abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + x ) { override def toString = x } Here, the identifier 'x' of the Derived class parameter overrides the field of the Base class, so invoking toString like this: println( new Derived( "string" ).toString ) returns the Derived value and gives the result "string". So a reference to the 'x' parameter prompts the compiler to automatically generate a field on Derived, which is served up in the call to toString. This is very convenient usually, but leads to a replication of the field (I'm now storing the field on both Base and Derived), which may be undesirable. To avoid this replication, I can rename the Derived class parameter from 'x' to something else, like '_x': abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( _x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + _x ) { override def toString = x } Now a call to toString returns "Base's string", which is what I want. Unfortunately, the code now looks somewhat ugly, and using named parameters to initialize the class also becomes less elegant: new Derived( _x = "string" ) There is also a risk of forgetting to give the derived classes' initialization parameters different names and inadvertently referring to the wrong field (undesirable since the Base class might actually hold a different value). Is there a better way? Edit: To clarify, I really only want the Base values; the Derived ones just seem necessary for initializing the Base ones. The example only references them to illustrate the ensuing issues. It might be nice to have a way to suppress automatic field generation if the derived class would otherwise end up hiding a base class field.

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Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

- by zengr

I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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Globally disabling FxCop errors in TeamCity

- by Dave

Ok, another FxCop question for today. I've read the arguments regarding the IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule, and whether or not it should be "XML" or "Xml". Well, I'm an "XML" guy and I want to stay that way. Therefore, I do not want FxCop to correct me all of the time. I have been using the SuppressMessage attribute only for specific cases. I have also used FxCop to mark a ton of errors and copied them as "module" level SuppressMessage statements into assemblyinfo.cs. That works pretty well. However, now I really want to globally disable this annoying IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule. I'm using TeamCity 5.0.3, and am not using an FxCop project file (however, I could do this). I was hoping that I could pass a parameter to FxCopCmd to tell it to ignore this error, but it doesn't look that way from the documentation. So... is there anything I can do short of creating an FxCop project file on the TeamCity build server and using it for the FxCop build runner?

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How can I display the users profile pic using the facebook graph api?

- by kielie

Hi, I would like to display the users profile picture inside of my applications canvas page, is there a way to do that using the graph api? I know I can do it using FBML but I would also like to pass the profile pic to a flash game I am making, so I would have to get the profile pic from the api and send it as a variable, here is the code I have thus far, $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'secret' => FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY, 'cookie' => true, 'domain' => 'myurl/facebook-test' )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $updated = date("l, F j, Y", strtotime($me['updated_time'])); echo "Hello " . $me['name'] . $me['picture'] . "<br />"; echo "<div style=\"background:url(images/bg.jpg); width:760px; height:630px;\">" . "You last updated your profile on " . $updated . "</div>" . "<br /> your uid is" . $uid; Thanx in advance!

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Alternative to jQuery's .toggle() method that supports eventData?

- by Bungle

The jQuery documentation for the .toggle() method states: The .toggle() method is provided for convenience. It is relatively straightforward to implement the same behavior by hand, and this can be necessary if the assumptions built into .toggle() prove limiting. The assumptions built into .toggle have proven limiting for my current task, but the documentation doesn't elaborate on how to implement the same behavior. I need to pass eventData to the handler functions provided to toggle(), but it appears that only .bind() will support this, not .toggle(). My first inclination is to use a flag global to a single handler function to store the click state. In other words, rather than: $('a').toggle(function() { alert('odd number of clicks'); }, function() { alert('even number of clicks'); }); do this: var clicks = true; $('a').click(function() { if (clicks) { alert('odd number of clicks'); clicks = false; } else { alert('even number of clicks'); clicks = true; } }); I haven't tested the latter, but I suspect it would work. Is this the best way to do something like this, or is there a better way that I'm missing? Thanks!

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What should i do to test EasyMock objects when using Generics ? EasyMock

- by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia

See code just bellow Our generic interface public interface Repository<INSTANCE_CLASS, INSTANCE_ID_CLASS> { void add(INSTANCE_CLASS instance); INSTANCE_CLASS getById(INSTANCE_ID_CLASS id); } And a single class public class Order { private Integer id; private Integer orderNumber; // getter's and setter's public void equals(Object o) { if(o == null) return false; if(!(o instanceof Order)) return false; // business key if(getOrderNumber() == null) return false; final Order other = (Order) o; if(!(getOrderNumber().equals(other.getOrderNumber()))) return false; return true; } // hashcode } And when i do the following test private Repository<Order, Integer> repository; @Before public void setUp { repository = EasyMock.createMock(Repository.class); Order order = new Order(); order.setOrderNumber(new Integer(1)); repository.add(order); EasyMock.expectLasCall().once(); EasyMock.replay(repository); } @Test public void addOrder() { Order order = new Order(); order.setOrderNumber(new Integer(1)); repository.add(order); EasyMock.verify(repository) } I get Unexpected method call add(br.com.smac.model.domain.Order@ac66b62): add(br.com.smac.model.domain.Order@ac66b62): expected: 1, actual: 0 Why does it not work as expected ??? What should i do to pass the test ???

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MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

- by Marty Trenouth

I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

- by driAn

Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

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InvalidCastException in DataGridView

- by Max Yaffe

(Using VS 2010 Beta 2 - .Net 4.0 B2 Rel) I have a class, MyTable, derived from BindingList where S is a struct. S is made up of several other structs, for example: public class MyTable<S>:BindingList<S> where S: struct { ... } public struct MyStruct { public MyReal r1; public MyReal r2; public MyReal R1 {get{...} set{...}} public MyReal R2 {get{...} set{...}} ... } public struct MyReal { private Double d; private void InitFromString(string) {this.d = ...;} public MyReal(Double d) { this.d = d;} public MyReal(string val) { this.d = default(Double); InitFromString(val);} public override string ToString() { return this.real.ToString();} public static explicit operator MyReal(string s) { return new MyReal(s);} public static implicit operator String(MyReal r) { return r.ToString();} ... } OK, I use the MyTable as a binding source for a DataGridView. I can load the data grid easily using InitFromString on individual fields in MyStruct. The problem comes when I try to edit a value in a cell of the DataGridView. Going to the first row, first column, I change the value of the existing number. It gives an exception blizzard, the first line of which says: System.FormatException: Invalid cast from 'System.String' to 'MyReal' I've looked at the casting discussions and reference books but don't see any obvious problems. Any ideas?

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How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

- by markerikson

I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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jquery image hover popup cant detect browser edge and change its direction

- by Salman

hi guys i am trying to implement jquery image hover popup but facing a problem when the popup is closer to browser edge it goes beyond its edge i want it to change its direction when it finds that space is not enough to show that popup, i have see this effect in many plugins where popups, tooltips and drop down menus change their direction if they are close to browser window edge can any one guide me in right direction here is the screen shot for reference http://img512.imageshack.us/img512/4990/browseredge.png here is the jquery hover code function imagePreview(){ /* CONFIG */ xOffset = 10; yOffset = 30; // these 2 variable determine popup's distance from the cursor // you might want to adjust to get the right result /* END CONFIG */ $("a.preview").hover(function(e){ this.t = this.title; this.title = ""; var c = (this.t != "") ? "<br>" + this.t : ""; var newName = this.name; //console.log(this.name); newName=newName.replace("/l/","/o/"); //console.log(newName); $("body").append("<p id='preview'><img src='"+ this.name +"' alt='Image preview' style='margin-bottom:5px;'>"+ c +"</p>"); $("#preview img").error(function () { $("#preview img").attr("src" ,newName).css({'width': '400px', 'height': 'auto'}); }); $("#preview") .css("top",(e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left",(e.pageX + yOffset) + "px") .fadeIn("fast"); }, function(){ this.title = this.t; $("#preview").remove(); }); $("a.preview").mousemove(function(e){ $("#preview") .css("top",(e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left",(e.pageX + yOffset) + "px"); }); }; any help will be appriciated Thanks Salman

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Two classes and inline functions

- by klew

I have two classes and both of them uses some of the other class, on example: // class1.h class Class1; #include "class2.h" class Class1 { public: static Class2 *C2; ... }; // class2.h class Class2; #include "class1.h" class Class2 { public: static Class1 *C1; ... }; And when I define it like in example above, it works (I also have some #ifndef to avoid infinite header recurency). But I also want to add some inline functions to my classes. And I read here that I should put definition of inline function in header file, because it won't work if I'll put them in cpp file and want to call them from other cpp file (when I do it I get undefined reference during linking). But the problem here is with something like this: // class1.h ... inline void Class1::Foo() { C2->Bar(); } I get error: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct Class2’. So how can I do it?

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Write a compiler for a language that looks ahead and multiple files?

- by acidzombie24

In my language I can use a class variable in my method when the definition appears below the method. It can also call methods below my method and etc. There are no 'headers'. Take this C# example. class A { public void callMethods() { print(); B b; b.notYetSeen(); public void print() { Console.Write("v = {0}", v); } int v=9; } class B { public void notYetSeen() { Console.Write("notYetSeen()\n"); } } How should I compile that? what i was thinking is: pass1: convert everything to an AST pass2: go through all classes and build a list of define classes/variable/etc pass3: go through code and check if there's any errors such as undefined variable, wrong use etc and create my output But it seems like for this to work I have to do pass 1 and 2 for ALL files before doing pass3. Also it feels like a lot of work to do until I find a syntax error (other than the obvious that can be done at parse time such as forgetting to close a brace or writing 0xLETTERS instead of a hex value). My gut says there is some other way. Note: I am using bison/flex to generate my compiler.

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Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

- by kyrisu

I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

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Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

- by jasonh

I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

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Passing VB Callback function to C dll - noob is stuck.

- by WaveyDavey

Callbacks in VB (from C dll). I need to pass a vb function as a callback to a c function in a dll. I know I need to use addressof for the function but I'm getting more and more confused as to how to do it. Details: The function in the dll that I'm passing the address of a callback to is defined in C as : PaError Pa_OpenStream( PaStream** stream, const PaStreamParameters *inputParameters, const PaStreamParameters *outputParameters, double sampleRate, unsigned long framesPerBuffer, PaStreamFlags streamFlags, PaStreamCallback *streamCallback, void *userData ); where the function is parameter 7, *streamCallback. The type PaStreamCallback is defines thusly: typedef int PaStreamCallback( const void *input, void *output, unsigned long frameCount, const PaStreamCallbackTimeInfo* timeInfo, PaStreamCallbackFlags statusFlags, void *userData ); In my vb project I have: Private Declare Function Pa_OpenStream Lib "portaudio_x86.dll" _ ( ByVal stream As IntPtr _ , ByVal inputParameters As IntPtr _ , ByVal outputParameters As PaStreamParameters _ , ByVal samprate As Double _ , ByVal fpb As Double _ , ByVal paClipoff As Long _ , ByVal patestCallBack As IntPtr _ , ByVal data As IntPtr) As Integer (don't worry if I've mistyped some of the other parameters, I'll get to them later! Let's concentrate on the callback for now.) In module1.vb I have defined the callback function: Function MyCallback( ByVal inp As Byte, _ ByVal outp As Byte, _ ByVal framecount As Long, _ ByVal pastreamcallbacktimeinfo As Byte, _ ByVal pastreamcallbackflags As Byte, _ ByVal userdata As Byte) As Integer ' do clever things here End Function The external function in the dll is called with err = Pa_OpenStream( ptr, _ nulthing, _ outputParameters, _ SAMPLE_RATE, _ FRAMES_PER_BUFFER, _ clipoff, _ AddressOf MyCallback, _ dataptr) This is broken in the declaration of the external function - it doesn't like the type IntPtr as a function pointer for AddressOf. Can anyone show me how to implement passing this callback function please ? Many thanks David

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Publish Maven artifacts on FTP with Hudson FTP Publisher Plugin

- by jaguard

I'm building a number of artefacts (zip files for different environments: test, dev) using the maven-assembly-plugin using a specialized Maven profile. These artefacts I want to copy/collect on on a FTP server keeping the version (01.07.10.16.Wed-1626) as a folder, so I need to copy from test/build/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ to ftp://my-ftp-server:21/projects/myserver-1.7/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ The layout for the Maven output is this: target/ build/ 01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-dev.zip my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-test.zip For copying the artefacts I'm using FTP Publisher Plugin but it seams I miss something since that even the build is OK and the artefacts are build without problem but the job is finishing without copying the artefacts, and in the console there is no log info about copying the artefacts My FTP publisher config (FTP repository hosts) is: Hostname: my-ftp-server Port: 21 Timeout: 10000 Root Repository Path: projects User Name: my-user Password: my-pass My Hudson job FTP publisher config (Publish artifacts to FTP) is: FTP site: my-ftp-server Files to upload Source: target/build/** Destination: myserver-1.7 1: There is any log to check if there are any FTP copy errors ? 2: There is any problem with the file pattern (source) or with the dest ?

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jQuery .animate() not animating backgroundPosition in IE

- by mikemike

I'm trying to animate a background image to move down a set amount of pixels but remain in the center of the page. Upon another click of an element I need it to move back to the top, but still remain in the center. Below is the current code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#email_campaigns').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; if($('#email_campaigns_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#email_campaigns_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#client_login_box').slideUp("slow"); }); $('#client_login').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; alert(width); if($('#client_login_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#client_login_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#email_campaigns_box').slideUp("slow"); }); }); I cannot pass 'center', as it will onyl accept numeric values. My goal is to calulate the center of the page in pixels (width = (width / 2) - 700;), and then animate to this rough position (it's normally out by a few pixels due to scrollbars, and then force to the center using a .css() call. The problem is that IE does not want to play ball. IE will not animate at all. Firefox/Safari/Chrome all work as expected. Below is a live example: http://recklessnewmedia.com/new/# (click 'email campaigns' at the top). Thanks

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PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

- by Daniel Redington

I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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Calling Model Functions from a Library

- by Abs

Hello all, I have turned a normal PHP class into a library so I can use it in Codeigniter as a library. I can load it and call the functions I need in that class. Here is that class to help with the question. However, there are quite a few points where I have to call functions in my class. These functions reside in the model that instantiated my class. How can I do this as currently normal calls don't work. Here is my code: class Controlpanel_model extends Model { var $category = ''; var $dataa = 'a'; function Controlpanel_model(){ parent::Model(); } function import_browser_bookmarks(){ $this->load->library('BookmarkParser'); /* *In this function call to the class I pass * what model functions exist that it should call * You can view how this done by clicking the link above and looking at line 383 */ $this->bookmarkparser->parseNetscape("./bookmarks.html", 0, 'myURL', 'myFolder'); return $this->dataa; } function myURL($data, $depth, $no) { $category = $this->category; $this->dataa .= 'Tag = '.$category.'<br />'.'URL = '.$data["url"].'<br />'.'Title = '.$data["descr"].'<br />'.'<br /><br />'; } function myFolder($data, $depth, $no) { $this->category = $data["name"]; } } Thanks all for any help.

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Asymptotic complexity of a compiler

- by Meinersbur

What is the maximal acceptable asymptotic runtime of a general-purpose compiler? For clarification: The complexity of compilation process itself, not of the compiled program. Depending on the program size, for instance, the number of source code characters, statements, variables, procedures, basic blocks, intermediate language instructions, assembler instructions, or whatever. This is highly depending on your point of view, so this is a community wiki. See this from the view of someone who writes a compiler. Will the optimisation level -O4 ever be used for larger programs when one of its optimisations takes O(n^6)? Related questions: When is superoptimisation (exponential complexity or even incomputable) acceptable? What is acceptable for JITs? Does it have to be linear? What is the complexity of established compilers? GCC? VC? Intel? Java? C#? Turbo Pascal? LCC? LLVM? (Reference?) If you do not know what asymptotic complexity is: How long are you willing to wait until the compiler compiled your project? (scripting languages excluded)

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