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  • jquery form validation: validation script specified externally

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have a jquery form validation in the master page and it works fine and i got that working from this article: http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=310 my question is: if i place the .js to external and add a reference to my page then its not working... it says object expected here is how i have done: in my content page (i am using master page, asp.net ) add in my content page: <script src="myform_validation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { ValidateMe(this); }); </script> below is in the external .js file: function ValidateMe() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }//, // }, messages: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { required: "Please enter a valid email address", minlength: "Please enter a valid email address" } , <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } } , success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); } ;

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  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

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  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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  • Problem with XStream Marshalling to return xml and json

    - by MiKu
    When i use new XStream().toXml(someObject); it returns following xml... <response> <status>SUCCESS</status> <isOwnershipVerified class="boolean">false</isOwnershipVerified> </response> and, when i use new XStream(new JsonHierarchicalStreamDriver()).toXml(someObject); it returns following json... {"response": { "status": "SUCCESS", "isOwnershipVerified": { "@class": "boolean""false"} }} Now, since i want to get rid of class attribute altogether (read it not to alias it with anything else, but to remove it) i use following code. XStream xStream = new XStream(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(); xStream.marshal(this, new PrettyPrintWriter(writer) { @Override public void addAttribute(final String key, final String value) { if (!key.equals("class")) { super.addAttribute(key, value); } } }); return writer.toString(); which gives follwing xml... <response> <status>SUCCESS</status> <isOwnershipVerified>false</isOwnershipVerified> </response> but, when i pass new JsonHierarchicalStreamDriver() while xStream object creation above, it does NOT return json. it returns the same xml shown above. What is wrong going on here? Thanks in advance...

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  • Add icon on spark button skin

    - by Jerry
    Hello all I am trying to add different icon on different buttons. I have my skin file ready but not sure if I have to create different skin class for different button. It sounds inefficient. Any suggestions? Thanks for the reply... <s:Button id="pass" width="110" height="35" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Past Track" data="@Embed('assets/IconAirplain.png')" click="pass_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> <s:Button id="future" width="110" height="20" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Future Plan" click="future_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> Skin..... <!-- layer 2: fill --> <!--- @private --> <s:Rect id="fill" left="1" right="1" top="1" bottom="1" radiusX="2"> <s:fill> <s:LinearGradient rotation="90"> <s:GradientEntry color="#304fd7" color.over="#4b6bf6" color.down="0xAAAAAA" alpha="0.85" /> <s:GradientEntry color="#1f38a3" color.over="#3653cf" color.down="0x929496" alpha="0.85" /> </s:LinearGradient> </s:fill> </s:Rect> <!-- icon --> // I could add my icon here but that would make me to create //different icon image for different button

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  • Web.Routing for the site root or homepage

    - by Aquinas
    I am doing some work with Web.Routing, using it to have friendly urls and nice Rest like interfaces to a site that is essentially rendered by a single IHttpHandler. There are no webforms, the handler generates all the html/json and writes it as part of process request. This works well for things like /Sites/Accounting for example, but I can't get it to work for the site root, i.e. '/'. I have tried registering a route with an empty string, with 'default.aspx' (which is the empty aspx file I keep in my root folder to play nice with cassini and iis). I set RouteExistingFiles to false explicitly, but whatever I do when hitting the root url it still opens default.axpx, which has no code it inherits from, and contains a simple h1 tag to show that I've hit it. I don't want to change the default file to redirect to a desired route, I just want the equivalent of a 'default' route that is applied when no other routes are found, similar to MVC. For reference, the previous version of the site didn't use Web.Routing, but had a handler referenced in the web.config that was perfectly capable of intercepting requests for the root or default.aspx. Specs: ASP.NET 3.5sp1, C#, no webforms, MVC or openrasta. Plain old IHttpHandlers.

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  • Lucene complex structure search

    - by archer
    Basically I do have pretty simple database that I'd like to index with Lucene. Domains are: // Person domain class Person { Set<Pair> keys; } // Pair domain class Pair { KeyItem keyItem; String value; } // KeyItem domain, name is unique field within the DB (!!) class KeyItem{ String name; } I've tens of millions of profiles and hundreds of millions of Pairs, however, since most of KeyItem's "name" fields duplicates, there are only few dozens KeyItem instances. Came up to that structure to save on KeyItem instances. Basically any Profile with any fields could be saved into that structure. Lets say we've profile with properties - name: Andrew Morton - eduction: University of New South Wales, - country: Australia, - occupation: Linux programmer. To store it, we'll have single Profile instance, 4 KeyItem instances: name, education,country and occupation, and 4 Pair instances with values: "Andrew Morton", "University of New South Wales", "Australia" and "Linux Programmer". All other profile will reference (all or some) same instances of KeyItem: name, education, country and occupation. My question is, how to index all of that so I can search for Profile for some particular values of KeyItem::name and Pair::value. Ideally I'd like that kind of query to work: name:Andrew* AND occupation:Linux* Should I create custom Indexer and Searcher? Or I could use standard ones and just map KeyItem and Pair as Lucene components somehow?

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  • Routing an ActiveMq topic to an external broker.

    - by chillitom
    Hi All, I have an ActiveMq topic which I wish to transform and share with an external broker. At present I have the following which performs the transformation: <camelContext id="camel" xmlns="http://activemq.apache.org/camel/schema/spring"> <route> <from uri="activemq:topic:OriginalTopic"/> <to uri="xslt:file:///xslt/transformation.xsl"/> <to uri="activemq:topic:NewTopic"/> </route> </camelContext> However this just sends the message to the current broker network. I'd like to pass the NewTopic messages to an external broker only. I don't want to join the external broker using a <networkConnector .. > as only this topic should be send to the external broker and no others. Is there a simple way to route messages to an external broker? Many thanks.

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  • C# TCP Async EndReceive() throws InvalidOperationException ONLY on Windows XP 32-bit

    - by James Farmer
    I have a simple C# Async Client using a .NET socket that waits for timed messages from a local Java server used for automating commands. The messages come in asynchronously and is written to a ring buffer. This implementation seems to work fine on Windows Vista/7/8 and OSX, but will randomly throw this exception while it's receiving a message from the local Java server: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: EndReceive can only be called once for each asynchronous operation.     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult, SocketError& errorCode)     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult)     at SocketTest.Controller.RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar)     at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken)     ... I've looked online for this error, but have found nothing really helpful. This is the code where it seems to break: /// <summary> /// Callback to receive socket data /// </summary> /// <param name="ar">AsyncResult to pass to End</param> private void RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // The exception will randomly happen on this call int bytes = _socket.EndReceive(_recvAsyncResult); // check for connection closed if (bytes == 0) { return; } _ringBuffer.Write(_buffer, 0, bytes); // Checks buffer CheckBuffer(); _recvAsyncResult = _sock.BeginReceive(_buffer, 0, _buffer.Length, SocketFlags.None, RecvAsyncCallback, null); } The error doesn't happen on any particular moment except in the middle of receiving a message. The message itself can be any length for this to happen, and the exception can happen right away, or sometimes even up to a minute of perfect communication. I'm pretty new with sockets and network communication, and I feel I might be missing something here. I've tested on at least 8 different computers, and the only similarity with the computers that throw this exception is that their OS is Windows XP 32-bit.

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  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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  • Treebeard admin in Django

    - by Sharath
    I've setup Treebeard in Django and everything seems to have gone well. I tried to setup the admin system and I can see my models being presented in the admin interface. However, when I try to add new data using the admin interface, I get the following error in my template. The code still works fine, and I did a check in my DB and the data seems to be inserted properly. However, the view doesn't seem to load properly. Any idea about what is causing this?? The exception am getting is.. Caught an exception while rendering: Failed lookup for key [request] in u'[{\'action_index\': 0, \'block\': , , , , , , ]}, {\'block\': , , , ], , , , , \n \', ], , ], , , , ], , , \n \', , , , , , , , , ], , ], \n \']}, {\'cl\': , \'root_path\': None, \'actions_on_bottom\': False, \'title\': u\'Select album to change\', \'has_add_permission\': True, \'media\': , \'is_popup\': False, \'action_form\': , \'actions_on_top\': True, \'app_label\': \'gallery\'}, {\'MEDIA_URL\': \'\'}, {\'LANGUAGES\': ((\'ar\', \'Arabic\'), (\'bn\', \'Bengali\'), (\'bg\', \'Bulgarian\'), (\'ca\', \'Catalan\'), (\'cs\', \'Czech\'), (\'cy\', \'Welsh\'), (\'da\', \'Danish\'), (\'de\', \'German\'), (\'el\', \'Greek\'), (\'en\', \'English\'), (\'es\', \'Spanish\'), (\'et\', \'Estonian\'), (\'es-ar\', \'Argentinean Spanish\'), (\'eu\', \'Basque\'), (\'fa\', \'Persian\'), (\'fi\', \'Finnish\'), (\'fr\', \'French\'), (\'ga\', \'Irish\'), (\'gl\', \'Galician\'), (\'hu\', \'Hungarian\'), (\'he\', \'Hebrew\'), (\'hi\', \'Hindi\'), (\'hr\', \'Croatian\'), (\'is\', \'Icelandic\'), (\'it\', \'Italian\'), (\'ja\', \'Japanese\'), (\'ka\', \'Georgian\'), (\'ko\', \'Korean\'), (\'km\', \'Khmer\'), (\'kn\', \'Kannada\'), (\'lv\', \'Latvian\'), (\'lt\', \'Lithuanian\'), (\'mk\', \'Macedonian\'), (\'nl\', \'Dutch\'), (\'no\', \'Norwegian\'), (\'pl\', \'Polish\'), (\'pt\', \'Portuguese\'), (\'pt-br\', \'Brazilian Portuguese\'), (\'ro\', \'Romanian\'), (\'ru\', \'Russian\'), (\'sk\', \'Slovak\'), (\'sl\', \'Slovenian\'), (\'sr\', \'Serbian\'), (\'sv\', \'Swedish\'), (\'ta\', \'Tamil\'), (\'te\', \'Telugu\'), (\'th\', \'Thai\'), (\'tr\', \'Turkish\'), (\'uk\', \'Ukrainian\'), (\'zh-cn\', \'Simplified Chinese\'), (\'zh-tw\', \'Traditional Chinese\')), \'LANGUAGE_BIDI\': False, \'LANGUAGE_CODE\': \'en-us\'}, {}, {\'perms\': , \'messages\': [], \'user\': }, {}]' This happens after I hit the save button in Django admin. This is my admin.py implementation.. class MP_Album_Admin(TreeAdmin): pass admin.site.register(Album,MP_Album_Admin)

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  • How to parse kanji numeric characters using ICU?

    - by Aki
    I'm writing a function using ICU to parse an Unicode string which consists of kanji numeric character(s) and want to return the integer value of the string. "?" = 5 "???" = 31 "???????" = 5972 I'm setting the locale to Locale::getJapan() and using the NumberFormat::parse() to parse the character string. However, whenever I pass it any Kanji characters, the parse() method is returning U_INVALID_FORMAT_ERROR. Does anyone know if ICU supports Kanji character strings in the NumberFormat::parse() method? I was hoping that since I'm setting the Locale to Japanese that it would be able to parse Kanji numeric values. Thanks! #include <iostream> #include <unicode/numfmt.h> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char **argv) { const Locale &jaLocale = Locale::getJapan(); UErrorCode status = U_ZERO_ERROR; NumberFormat *nf = NumberFormat::createInstance(jaLocale, status); UChar number[] = {0x4E94}; // Character for '5' in Japanese '?' UnicodeString numStr(number); Formattable formattable; nf->parse(numStr, formattable, status); if (U_FAILURE(status)) { cout << "error parsing as number: " << u_errorName(status) << endl; return(1); } cout << "long value: " << formattable.getLong() << endl; }

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  • Rails, RSpec and Webrat: Expected output matches rendered output but still getting error in view spe

    - by Anthony Burns
    Hello all, I've just gotten started using BDD with RSpec/Cucumber/Webrat and Rails and I've run into some frustration trying to get my view spec to pass. First of all, I am running Ruby 1.9.1p129 with Rails 2.3.2, RSpec and RSpec-Rails 1.2.6, Cucumber 0.3.11, and Webrat 0.4.4. Here is the code relevant to my question config/routes.rb: map.b_posts 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'backend_index', :conditions => { :method => :get } map.connect 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'create', :conditions => { :method => :post } views/backend/posts/create.html.erb: <% form_tag do %> <% end %> *spec/views/backend/posts/create.html.erb_spec.rb:* describe "backend/posts/create.html.erb" do it "should render a form to create a post" do render "backend/posts/create.html.erb" response.should have_selector("form", :method => 'post', :action => b_posts_path) do |form| # Nothing here yet. end end end Here is the relevant part of the output when I run script/spec: 'backend/posts/create.html.erb should render a form to create a post' FAILED expected following output to contain a <form method='post' action='/backend/posts'/> tag: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40/loose.dtd"> <html><body><form action="/backend/posts" method="post"> </form></body></html> It would appear to me that what have_selector is looking for is exactly what the template generates, yet the example still fails. I am very much looking forward to seeing my error (because I have a feeling it is my error). Any help is much appreciated!

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  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • Silverlight, WCF service, integrated security AND ssl/https not possible?

    - by Flores
    I have this setup that works perfectly when using http. A silverlight 3 client .net 4 WCF service hosted in IIS with basicHttpBinding and using integrated security on the site When setting https to required on the website the setup stops working. Using the wcftestclient on the uri I get the message: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Negotiate,NTLM'. The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Maybe this makes sense because the wcftestclient does not pass credentials? in the web.config the security mode for the service binding is set is set to 'Transport'. The silverlight client is created like this: BasicHttpBinding basicHttpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(); basicHttpBinding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport; var serviceClient = new ImportServiceClient(basicHttpBinding, serviceAddress); The service address is ofcourse starting with https:// And the silverlight client reports this error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via Remember, swithing it back to http (and setting security mode to 'TransportCredentialOnly' makes everything working again. Is the setup I want even supported? If so, how should it be configured?

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  • Doubts About Core Data NSManagedObject Deep Copy

    - by Jigzat
    Hello everyone, I have a situation where I must copy one NSManagedObject from the main context into an editing context. It sounds unnecessary to most people as I have seen in similar situations described in Stackoverflow but I looks like I need it. In my app there are many views in a tab bar and every view handles different information that is related to the other views. I think I need multiple MOCs since the user may jump from tab to tab and leave unsaved changes in some tab but maybe it saves data in some other tab/view so if that happens the changes in the rest of the views are saved without user consent and in the worst case scenario makes the app crash. For adding new information I got away by using an adding MOC and then merging changes in both MOCs but for editing is not that easy. I saw a similar situation here in Stackoverflow but the app crashes since my data model doesn't seem to use NSMutableSet for the relationships (I don't think I have a many-to-many relationship, just one-to-many) I think it can be modified so I can retrieve the relationships as if they were attributes for (NSString *attr in relationships) { [cloned setValue:[source valueForKey:attr] forKey:attr]; } but I don't know how to merge the changes of the cloned and original objects. I think I could just delete the object from the main context, then merge both contexts and save changes in the main context but I don't know if is the right way to do it. I'm also concerned about database integrity since I'm not sure that the inverse relationships will keep the same reference to the cloned object as if it were the original one. Can some one please enlighten me about this?

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  • Passing Control's Value to Modal Popup

    - by Sherwin Valdez
    Hello, Just would like know how to pass textbox value to a modal popup after clicking a button using ModalPopUpExtender in ASP.NET, I've tried these codes but seems that I have no luck :( <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button1.Attributes.Add("onclick", "showModalPopup(); return false;"); } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick='showModalPopup(); return false;' /> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="ModalPopupExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="Button1" PopupControlID="Panel1" CancelControlID="btnCancel" OkControlID="btnOkay" BackgroundCssClass="ModalPopupBG"> </cc1:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" Style="display: none" runat="server"> <div class="HellowWorldPopup"> <div class="PopupHeader" id="PopupHeader"> Header</div> <div class="PopupBody"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> </div> <div class="Controls"> <input id="btnOkay" type="button" value="Done" /> <input id="btnCancel" type="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div> </asp:Panel> javascript function showModalPopup() { //show the ModalPopupExtender var value; value = document.getElementById("TextBox1").value; $get("<%=Label1.ClientID %>").value = value; $find("<%=ModalPopupExtender1.ClientID %>").show(); } I wonder what I miss out :(, Thanks and I hope someone could help me :)

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  • .NET: How do I know if I have an unmanaged resource?

    - by Shiftbit
    I've read that unmanaged resource are considered file handles, streams, anything low level. Does MSDN or any other source explain how to recognize an unmanaged resource? I can't seem to find any examples on the net that show unmanaged code, all the examples just have comments that say unmanaged code here. Can someone perhaps provide a realworld example where I would handle an unmanaged resources in an IDispose interface? I provided the IDisposable interface for your convience. How do I identify an unmanaged resource? Thanks in advance! IDisposable Reference Public Class Sample : Implements IDisposable Private disposedValue As Boolean = False 'To detect redundant calls ' IDisposable Protected Overridable Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If Not Me.disposedValue Then If disposing Then ' TODO: free other state (managed objects). End If ' TODO: free your own state (unmanaged objects). ' TODO: set large fields to null. End If Me.disposedValue = True End Sub ' This code added by Visual Basic to correctly implement the disposable pattern. Public Sub Dispose() Implements IDisposable.Dispose ' Do not change this code. Put cleanup code in Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) above. Dispose(True) GC.SuppressFinalize(Me) End Sub End Class

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  • How to enable and use HTTP PUT and DELETE with Apache2 and PHP?

    - by Andreas Jansson
    Hi, It should be so simple. I've followed every tutorial and forum I could find, yet I can't get it to work. I simply want to build a RESTful API in PHP on Apache2. In my VirtualHost directive I say: <Directory /> AllowOverride All <Limit GET HEAD POST PUT DELETE OPTIONS> Order Allow,Deny Allow from all </Limit> </Directory> Yet every PUT request I make to the server, I get 405 method not supported. Someone advocated using the Script directive, but since I use mod_php, as opposed to CGI, I don't see why that would work. People mention using WebDAV, but to me that seems like overkill. After all, I don't need DAV locking, a DAV filesystem, etc. All I want to do is pass the request on to a PHP script and handle everything myself. I only want to enable PUT and DELETE for the clean semantics. Thanks, Andreas

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  • Amazon Elastic MapReduce: Exception from FileSystem

    - by S.N
    Hi, I run my application using ruby client: ruby elastic-mapreduce -j j-20PEKMT9BRSUC --jar s3n://sakae55/lib/edu.cit.som.jar --main-class edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/input/ecoli/ --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/output/ecoli/pl/ --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/data/ecoli/som.txt Then, I am seeing the following error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: This file system object (file:///) does not support access to the request path 'hdfs://i -10-195-207-230.ec2.internal:9000/mnt/var/lib/hadoop/tmp/mapred/system/job_201004221221_0017/job.jar' You possibly called Fi eSystem.get(conf) when you should of called FileSystem.get(uri, conf) to obtain a file system supporting your path. at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.checkPath(FileSystem.java:320) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.RawLocalFileSystem.pathToFile(RawLocalFileSystem.java:52) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.RawLocalFileSystem.getFileStatus(RawLocalFileSystem.java:416) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FilterFileSystem.getFileStatus(FilterFileSystem.java:259) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.isDirectory(FileSystem.java:676) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileUtil.copy(FileUtil.java:200) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1184) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1160) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1132) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.configureCommandLineOptions(JobClient.java:662) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.submitJob(JobClient.java:729) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.runJob(JobClient.java:1026) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.runIteration(SOMDriver.java:106) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.train(SOMDriver.java:69) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.run(SOMDriver.java:52) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:65) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:79) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.main(SOMDriver.java:36) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.hadoop.util.RunJar.main(RunJar.java:155) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobShell.run(JobShell.java:54) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:65) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:79) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobShell.main(JobShell.java:68) I am not sure why the error references to "file:///" even though all the arguments I pass do not use the schema.

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  • Finding source of over release

    - by Benedict Lowndes
    Hi, I'm consistently seeing the same message sent in as a crash report from users of an app. It's clear that an object is being over-released but I'm unable to replicate it and I'm looking for tips on tracing the source of it. The relevant section from the crash report shows this: Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: release Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x90892edb objc_msgSend + 27 1 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec5a40 __CFBasicHashStandardCallback + 384 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec564e __CFBasicHashDrain + 478 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ead6f1 _CFRelease + 353 4 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95eda0ed _CFAutoreleasePoolPop + 253 5 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ecedd6 NSPopAutoreleasePool + 76 6 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ececfe -[NSAutoreleasePool drain] + 130 7 com.apple.AppKit 0x9211255f -[NSApplication run] + 1013 8 com.apple.AppKit 0x9210a535 NSApplicationMain + 574 9 TheApp 0x000020a6 start + 54 I've used zombies and leaks, but haven't seen anything there. I've gone through the code and can't see it. What's the next step? Are there any hints I can discern from this information as to the source of it? Does the fact that this nearly exact same crash report is coming in repeatedly mean that it's the same object that's being over released, or because this is referring to the autorelease pool mean it could be any object? Does the reference to _CFRelease mean it's a Core Foundation object that's being over released?

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  • Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

    - by Crend King
    I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

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  • Simple Select Statement on MySQL Database Hanging

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a very simple sql select statement on a very large table, that is non-normalized. (Not my design at all, I'm just trying to optimize while simultaneously trying to convince the owners of a redesign) Basically, the statement is like this: SELECT FirstName, LastName, FullName, State FROM Activity Where (FirstName=@name OR LastName=@name OR FullName=@name) AND State=@state; Now, FirstName, LastName, FullName and State are all indexed as BTrees, but without prefix - the whole column is indexed. State column is a 2 letter state code. What I'm finding is this: When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = '%' the search is really fast and yields results immediately. When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = 'FL' the search takes 5 minutes (and usually this means the web service times out...) When I remove the FirstName and LastName comparisons, and only use the FullName and State, both cases above work very quickly. When I replace FirstName, LastName, FullName, and State searches, but use LIKE for each search, it works fast for @name='John Smith%' and @state='%', but slow for @name='John Smith%' and @state='FL' When I search against 'John Sm%' and @state='FL' the search finds results immediately When I search against 'John Smi%' and @state='FL' the search takes 5 minutes. Now, just to reiterate - the table is not normalized. The John Smith appears many many times, as do many other users, because there is no reference to some form of users/people table. I'm not sure how many times a single user may appear, but the table itself has 90 Million records. Again, not my design... What I'm wondering is - though there are many many problems with this design, what is causing this specific problem. My guess is that the index trees are just too large that it just takes a very long time traversing the them. (FirstName, LastName, FullName) Anyway, I appreciate anyone's help with this. Like I said, I'm working on convincing them of a redesign, but in the meantime, if I someone could help me figure out what the exact problem is, that'd be fantastic.

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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