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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • Formating Date in Freemarker to say "Today", "Yesterday", etc.

    - by egervari
    Is there a way in freemarker to compare dates to test if the date is today or yesterday... or do I have to write code in Java to do these tests? I basically want to do this: <#------------------------------------------------------------------------------ formatDate -------------------------------------------------------------------------------> <#macro formatDate date showTime=true> <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?is_today> Today <#elseif date?is_yesterday> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if> </#macro> EDIT: My best guess to implement this is to pass "today" and "yesterday" into the model for the pages that use this function and then compare the date values against these 2 objects in the model. I am out of out of options, but I'd rather not have to do this for every page that uses this macro. Any other options that are nicer? <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?date?string.short == today?date?string.short> Today <#elseif date?date?string.short == yesterday?date?string.short> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if>

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  • W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

    - by ThomasReggi
    Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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  • gpg error - connection already closed?

    - by OopsForgotMyOtherUserName
    omg... hope someone can help me because I am so lost as to what to try next.... I don't know what is causing the error to happen, and I don't see how to figure it out... Keep going between the pgloader.conf examples and what I have, and I don't understand why I keep getting the 'connection already closed' error? The first few lines of my fr.conf is at the very end... I'd really appreciate / love some guidance here... Been trying to get this thing going all morning, and am even getting stuck just on this part... Running this command at the command line: /usr/bin/pgloader -c /var/mybin/pgconfs/fr.conf Yields this in the pgloader.log (with the process just hanging) more /tmp/pgloader.log 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Logger initialized 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Reformat path is ['/usr/share/python-support/pgloader/reformat'] 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Will consider following sections: 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO fixed 27-03-2010 12:22:54 fixed INFO fixed processing 27-03-2010 12:22:54 pgloader INFO All threads are started, wait for them to terminate 27-03-2010 12:22:57 fixed ERROR connection already closed 27-03-2010 12:22:57 fixed INFO closing current database connection [pgsql] host = localhost port = 5432 base = frdb user = username pass = password [fixed] table = fr format = fixed filename = /var/www/fr.txt ...

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  • From Servlet to JSP

    - by kawtousse
    When trying to pass a table built with HTML in my servlet like that: response.setContentType("text/html" ); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("<html>" ); out.println("<head>" ); out.println("<title>Imput OPC</title>" ); out.println("</head>" ); out.println("<body>" ); ... and then response.sendRedirect("/xxx.jsp" ); But I did not found any table in the JSP. A friend told me to use a Bean but how can i catch values from the form ( because I have a treatement with the form before constructing table)in a bean.I must use a servlet for that. So what I want is exactly to construct in the response a table then send it to jsp knowing that: .sendRedirect and getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/xxx.jsp").forward(request, response); gives nothing at all. Please Help its urgent. Thinks.

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  • How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

    - by peter
    Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

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  • Sitecore development. Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() throws NullReferenceException

    - by user344010
    I just click submit button and got an exception. Unable to debug, because this happens before the submit event handler work. I tried to clear sitecore caches, browser caches and cookies... nothing helps. here the stack trace. [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() +242 Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +61 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlHead.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +17 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266

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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

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  • Passing Values to Controllers

    - by Dru
    I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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  • Change nhibernate config with nant xmlpoke

    - by isuruceanu
    Hi All How can I change the connection string from nhibernate.config file using nant the problem is that all examples are about changing attribute value, but nhibernate has inner text eq: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.connection_string">Data Source.\server;Database=UnitTestDb;UID=user;pwd=pass;</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="connection.release_mode">auto</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">500</property> .... I need to change property connection.connection_string <xmlpoke file="${nhibernate.file}" xpath="/hibernate-configuration/session-factory/add[@key='connection.connection_string']/@value" value="${connection.string}"> </xmlpoke> this does not work in this case. Thanks

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  • Why doesn't my text be bold when displaying on device screen

    - by john123
    My string.xml: <!--I try to bold my argument %s, like below:--> <string name="hello">Hello to: <b>%s</b> !</string> My layout main.xml: <LinearLayout ...> <TextView android:id="@+id/hello_txt" ... .../> </LinearLayout> My Fragment class: public class MyFragment extends Fragment{ TextView helloTxt; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreateView(inflater, container, savedInstanceState); helloTxt = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.hello_txt); } @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); //pass "Monday" as the argument to my string helloTxt.setText(String.format(getString(R.string.hello), "Monday")); } } When I run my app on my device, I got "Hello to: Monday !" displaying on screen, but the "Monday" is not bold, but I used <b> in my string.xml. Why it is not bold??

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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  • Which design pattern is most appropriate?

    - by Anon
    Hello, I want to create a class that can use one of four algorithms (and the algorithm to use is only known at run-time). I was thinking that the Strategy design pattern sounds appropriate, but my problem is that each algorithm requires slightly different parameters. Would it be a bad design to use strategy, but pass in the relevant parameters into the constructor?. Here is an example (for simplicity, let's say there are only two possible algorithms) ... class Foo { private: // At run-time the correct algorithm is used, e.g. a = new Algorithm1(1); AlgorithmInterface* a; }; class AlgorithmInterface { public: virtual void DoSomething = 0; }; class Algorithm1 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm1( int i ) : value(i) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Does something with int value }; int value; }; class Algorithm2 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm2( bool b ) : value(b) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Do something with bool value }; bool value; };

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

    - by Bob
    What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

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  • Sql Server Compact Edition version error.

    - by Tim
    I am working on .NET ClickOnce project that uses Sql Server 2005 Compact Edition to synchronize remote data through the use of a Merge replication. This application has been live for nearly a year now, and while we encounter occasional synchronization errors, things run quite smoothly for the most part. Yesterday a user reported an error that I have never seen before and have yet to find any information for online. Many users synchronize every night, and I haven't received error reports from anyone else, so this issue must be isolated to this particular user / client machine. Here are the full details of the error: -Error Code : 80004005 -Message : The message contains an unexpected replication operation code. The version of SQL Server Compact Edition Client Agent and SQL Server Compact Edition Server Agent should match. [ replication operation code = 31 ] -Minor Error : 28526 -Source : Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition -Numeric Parameters : 31 One interesting thing that I've found is that his data does get synchronized to the server, so this error must occur after the upload completes. I have yet to determine whether or not changes at the server are still being downloaded to his subscription. Thinking that maybe there was some kind of version conflict going on, I had a remote desktop session with this user last night and uninstalled both the application and the SQL Server Compact Edition prerequisite, then reinstalled both from our ClickOnce publication site. I also removed his existing local database file so that upon synchronization, an entirely new subscription would be issued to him. Still his errors continue. I suppose the error may be somewhat general, and the text in the error message stating that the versions should match may not necessarily reflect the problem at hand. This site contains the only official reference to this error that I've been able to find, and it offers no more detail than the error message itself. Has anyone else encountered this error? Or at least know more about SQL Compact to have a better guess as to what is going on here? Any help / suggestions will be greatly appreciated!

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  • How to decrypt a string encrypted with HMACSHA1?

    - by Bob
    I'm an encryption novice trying to pass some values back and forth between systems. I can encrypt the value, but can't seem to figure out how to decrypt on the other end. I've created a simple Windows Forms application using VB.NET. Trying to input a value and a key, encrypt and then decrypt to get the original value. Here's my code so far. Any help greatly appreciated. Thanks. Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Security.Cryptography Imports System.Text Public Class Form1 Private Sub btnEncode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEncode.Click Dim hmacsha1 As New HMACSHA1(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtKey.Text)) Dim hashValue As Byte() = hmacsha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtValue.Text)) txtResult.Text = BytesToHexString(hashValue) hmacsha1.Clear() End Sub Private Sub btnDecode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDecode.Click '??? End Sub Private Function BytesToHexString(ByVal bytes As Byte()) As String Dim output As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 Do While i < bytes.Length output += bytes(i).ToString("X2") i += 1 Loop Return output End Function End Class

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA and Wordpress media_handle_upload

    - by BaronVonKaneHoffen
    Hi there! So I'm making something for which users need to upload images from a canvas element (on the front end) using Wordpress's in-built Media Upload API. I've successfully uploaded images with the API from a file input in a form: <input type="file" name="async-upload" id="async-upload" size="40" /> ... <?php $new_attach_id = media_handle_upload( 'async-upload', $new_id ); ?> and I've saved images from the canvas using my own script: <script type="text/javascript"> ... var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); ... ajax.send(img ); </script> ... <?php $imageData=$GLOBALS['HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA']; $filteredData=substr($imageData, strpos($imageData, ",")+1); $unencodedData=base64_decode($filteredData); $fp = fopen( 'saved_images/canv_save_test.png', 'wb' ); fwrite( $fp, $unencodedData); ... ?> Problem is, Wordpress's media_handle_upload() only accepts an index to the $_FILES array for the upload. So the question is: How can I pass the image data from HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA to it? Could I make the $_FILES['tmp-name'] point to it somehow? Could I use another script as an intermediate step somehow? Could I unleash the monkeys on the typewriter until they come up with the answer? Any help very very much appreciated! Thanks, Kane

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  • How do I find all paths through a set of given nodes in a DAG?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a list of items (blue nodes below) which are categorized by the users of my application. The categories themselves can be grouped and categorized themselves. The resulting structure can be represented as a Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG) where the items are sinks at the bottom of the graph's topology and the top categories are sources. Note that while some of the categories might be well defined, a lot is going to be user defined and might be very messy. Example: On that structure, I want to perform the following operations: find all items (sinks) below a particular node (all items in Europe) find all paths (if any) that pass through all of a set of n nodes (all items sent via SMTP from example.com) find all nodes that lie below all of a set of nodes (intersection: goyish brown foods) The first seems quite straightforward: start at the node, follow all possible paths to the bottom and collect the items there. However, is there a faster approach? Remembering the nodes I already passed through probably helps avoiding unnecessary repetition, but are there more optimizations? How do I go about the second one? It seems that the first step would be to determine the height of each node in the set, as to determine at which one(s) to start and then find all paths below that which include the rest of the set. But is this the best (or even a good) approach? The graph traversal algorithms listed at Wikipedia all seem to be concerned with either finding a particular node or the shortest or otherwise most effective route between two nodes. I think both is not what I want, or did I just fail to see how this applies to my problem? Where else should I read?

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

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