Search Results

Search found 23792 results on 952 pages for 'void pointers'.

Page 832/952 | < Previous Page | 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839  | Next Page >

  • Dynamically showing TableView or DetailView

    - by Niels
    From my TableView I dynamically want to show either a TableView or a DetailView (new segue), based on the cell's content. I setup two segues from the TableView to different DetailViews and one segue from the TableViewCell to the TableView. I have almost completed the implementation using performSegueWithIdentifier: (see below), but there is one struggling issue remaining: after I call [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; on the DetailView it returns to an empty TableView . I assume because the Storyboard segue from the UITableViewCell is performed. By clicking the back button I return to my original (parent) TableView data. Any suggestions for this work? - (void)prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender { NSLog(@"%s", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__); NSString *type = [[self.dataController objectInListAtIndex:[self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow].row] valueForKey:@"cell_type"]; NSLog(@"cell_type: %@", type); if([[segue identifier] isEqualToString:@"DetailSegue"]) { UIViewController *detailViewController = [segue destinationViewController]; detailViewController.game = [self.dataController objectInListAtIndex:[self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow].row]; } else if ... } else if([[segue identifier] isEqualToString:@"TableViewSegue"]){ if([type isEqualToString:@"TableView"]){ //Create child ViewController, a custom ViewController with custom initWithId:Title: CategoryViewController *categoryViewController = [[segue destinationViewController] initWithId:categoryId Title:categoryTitle]; } } }

    Read the article

  • OOP C# Question: Making a Fruit a Pear

    - by Adam Kane
    Given that I have an instance of Fruit with some properties set, and I want to get those properties into a new Pear instance (because this particular Fruit happens to have the qualities of a pear), what's the best way to achieve this effect? For example, what we can't do is simple cast a Fruit to a Pear, because not all Fruits are Pears: public static class PearGenerator { public static Pear CreatePear () { // Make a new generic fruit. Fruit genericFruit = new Fruit(); // Upcast it to a pear. (Throws exception: Can't cast a Fruit to a Pear.) Pear pear = (Pear)genericFruit; // Return freshly grown pear. return ( pear ); } } public class Fruit { // some code } public class Pear : Fruit { public void PutInPie () { // some code } } Thanks! Update: I don't control the "new Fruit()" code. My starting point is that I've got a Fruit to work with. I need to get that Fruit into a new Pear somehow. Maybe copy all the properties one by one?

    Read the article

  • Is there anything bad in declaring nested class inside interface in java?

    - by Roman
    I have an interface ProductService with method findByCriteria. This method had a long list of nullable parameters, like productName, maxCost, minCost, producer and so on. I refactored this method by introducing Parameter Object. I created class SearchCriteria and now method signature looks like this: findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria) I thought that instances of SearchCriteria are only created by method callers and are only used inside findByCriteria method, i.e.: void processRequest() { SearchCriteria criteria = new SearchCriteria () .withMaxCost (maxCost) ....... .withProducer (producer); List<Product> products = productService.findByCriteria (criteria); .... } and List<Product> findByCriteria(SearchCriteria criteria) { return doSmthAndReturnResult(criteria.getMaxCost(), criteria.getProducer()); } So I did not want to create a separate public class for SearchCriteria and put it inside ProductServiceInterface: public interface ProductService { List<Product> findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria); static class SearchCriteria { ... } } Is there anything bad with this interface? Where whould you place SearchCriteria class?

    Read the article

  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

    Read the article

  • Barcode not generated in C# web forms?

    - by Sinsil Mathew
    I am trying for create a barcode in my web form.for that i download font IDAutomationHC39M and install in my system,then i run my wesite in localhost but barcode cannot be generated.This is my code protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { string barCode = TextBox1.Text; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image imgBarCode = new System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image(); using (Bitmap bitMap = new Bitmap(barCode.Length * 40, 80)) { using (Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitMap)) { Font oFont = new Font("IDAutomationHC39M", 16); PointF point = new PointF(2f, 2f); SolidBrush blackBrush = new SolidBrush(Color.Black); SolidBrush whiteBrush = new SolidBrush(Color.White); graphics.FillRectangle(whiteBrush, 0, 0, bitMap.Width, bitMap.Height); graphics.DrawString("*" + barCode + "*", oFont, blackBrush, point); } using (MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream()) { bitMap.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Png); byte[] byteImage = ms.ToArray(); Convert.ToBase64String(byteImage); imgBarCode.ImageUrl = "data:image/png;base64," + Convert.ToBase64String(byteImage); } plBarCode.Controls.Add(imgBarCode); } And the result is appear like that code

    Read the article

  • NSOutlineView not redrawing

    - by Septih
    Hello, I have an NSOutlineView with checkboxes. I have the checkbox state bound to a node item with the key shouldBeCopied. In the node item I have the getters and setters like so: -(BOOL)shouldBeCopied { if([[self parent] shouldBeCopied]) return YES; return shouldBeCopied; } -(void)setShouldBeCopied:(BOOL)value { shouldBeCopied = value; if(value && [[self children] count] > 0) [[self delegate] reloadData]; } The idea here is that if the parent is checked, so should the children. The problem I'm having is that when I check the parent, it does not update that view of the children if they are already expanded. I can understand that it should not be updated by the bindings because i'm not actually changing the value. But should reloadData not cause the bindings to re-get the value, thus calling -shouldBeCopied for the children? I have tried a few other things such as -setNeedsDisplay and -reloadItem:nil reloadChildren:YES but none work. I've noticed that the display gets refreshed when I swap to xcode and then back again and that's all I want, so how do I get it to behave that way?

    Read the article

  • developing daily alarm in android

    - by zoza
    I have this piece of code that fire the alarm once by setting a time and date using the TimePicker and the DatePicker in another activity. i want to modify it in a way that whenever i set a time and a date it will fire the alarm everyday at the same time. in other words i want the alarm to be fired dialy public class M_ReminderManager { private Context mContext; private AlarmManager mAlarmManager; public M_ReminderManager(Context context) { mContext = context; mAlarmManager = (AlarmManager)context.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); } public void setReminder(Long reminderId, Calendar when) { Intent i = new Intent(mContext, Medicines_OnAlarmReceiver.class); i.putExtra(RemindersDbAdapter.KEY_ROWID_MEDS, (long)reminderId); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(mContext, 0, i, PendingIntent.FLAG_ONE_SHOT); mAlarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, when.getTimeInMillis(), pi); } } i have tried using setRepeating function but i dont know how exactly i should set the attributes i used this line instead of the set fuction on the code but it didn't work: mAlarmManager.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, when.getTimeInMillis() ,AlarmManager.INTERVAL_DAY , pi); can someone help me with it? thanks in advance,

    Read the article

  • InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

    - by Wallstreet Programmer
    I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

    Read the article

  • glDrawArrays() slow on iPad?

    - by Nick
    Hey guys, I was wondering how to speed up my iPad application using OpenGLES 2.0. At the moment we have every drawable object draw itself with a call to glDrawArrays(). Blend mode is on, we really need it. Without disabling blendmode, how would we improve performance for this app? For instances, if we now draw 1 texture across the whole screen, the app only gets 15FPS, which is really slow I think? Are we doing something terribly wrong? Our drawing code (for each drawable), is as follows: - (void) draw { GLuint textureAvailable = 0; if(texture != nil){ textureAvailable = 1; } glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture.name); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_VERTEX, 2, GL_FLOAT, 0, 0, vertices); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_VERTEX); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_COLOR, 4, GL_FLOAT, 1, 0, colorsWithMultipliedAlpha); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_COLOR); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_TEXTUREMAP, 2, GL_FLOAT, 1, 0, textureMapping); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_TEXTUREMAP); //Note that we are NOT using position.z here because that is only used to determine drawing order int *jnUniforms = JNOpenGLConstants::getInstance().uniforms; glUniform4f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TRANSLATE], position.x, position.y, 0.0, 0.0); glUniform4f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_SCALE], scale.x, scale.y, 1.0, 1.0); glUniform1f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_ROTATION], rotation); glUniform1i(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_SAMPLE], 0); glUniform2f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_REPEAT], textureRepeat.x, textureRepeat.y); glUniform1i(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_AVAILABLE], textureAvailable); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); }

    Read the article

  • Android game logic problem

    - by semajhan
    I'm currently creating a game and have a problem which I think I know why it is occurring but not entirely sure and even if I knew, don't know how to solve. I have a 2D array 10 x 10 and have a "player" class that takes up a tile. Now, I have created 2 instances of the player and move them around via swiping. Around the edges I have put "walls" that the player cannot walk through and everything works fine, until I remove a wall. Once I remove a wall and move the character/player to the edge of the screen, the player cannot go any further. The problem occurs here, where the second instance of the player is not at the edge of the screen but say 2 tiles from the first instance of "player" who is at the edge. If I try moving them further into the direction of the edge, I understand that the first instance of player wouldn't move or do anything but the second instance of player should still move, but it won't. This is the code that executed when the user swipes: if (player.getArrayX() - 1 != player2.getArrayX()) { player.moveLeft(); } else if (player.getArrayX() - 1 == player2.getArrayX() && player.getArrayY() != player2.getArrayY()) { player.moveLeft(); } if (player2.getArrayX() - 1 != player.getArrayX()) { player2.moveLeft(); } else if (player2.getArrayX() - 1 == player.getArrayX() && player2.getArrayY() != player.getArrayY()) { player2.moveLeft(); } In the player class I have: public void moveLeft() { if (alive) { switch (levelMaster.getLevel1(getArrayX() - 1, getArrayY())) { case 0: break; case 1: subX(); // basically moves player left setArrayX(getArrayX() - 1); // shifts x coord of player 1 within tilemap Log.d("semajhan", "x: " + getArrayX()); break; case 9: subX(); setArrayX(getArrayX() - 1); setAlive(false); break; } } } Any help on the matter or further insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Multiple Exception Handling in one if statement [closed]

    - by JA3N
    I am having trouble with throwing and catching exceptions. Here is the code for assignSeat(), assignSeat is called in a try block in another class. void assignSeat(String passengerName, int x, int y) throws SeatOccupiedException, InvalidPassengerNameException { Seat tSeat = airplane.getSeat(x,y); if (tSeat!=null) { if (passengerName.isEmpty() || !passengerName.matches("[a-zA-Z]+")) { throw new InvalidPassengerNameException(); } //excluded else if else if (foundPassenger(passengerName)) { airplane.seatList.get(airplane.seatNumber(passengerName)).unOccupy(); tSeat.occupy(); for (int i = 0; i<passengers.size();i++) if (passengers.get(i).getName().equals(passengerName)) passengers.get(i).changeSeat(tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (!tSeat.occupied) { tSeat.occupy(); addPassenger(passengerName, tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (tSeat.occupied) { throw new SeatOccupiedException(); } } and here is the code that calls assignSeat() and is in another class (I won't copy the whole class to make it look clearer) if (afComp.currentAF != null) { try { afComp.currentAF.assignSeat(nameField.getText(), x, y); //<-Problem here, "Unhandled exception type SeatOccupiedException" } catch (SeatOccupiedException exception) //<-Problem here, "Unreachable catch block, This exception is never thrown from the try statement body" { } catch(InvalidPassengerNameException exception) //<-No problems. { } } Whats wrong with the try block? why won't it throw the SeatOccupiedException? Exception classes: SeatOccupied: package a2; public class SeatOccupiedException extends Exception { public SeatOccupiedException(){} } InvalidPassengerName: package a2; public class InvalidPassengerNameException extends Exception { public InvalidPassengerNameException() {} } Every class I have is in package a2 imports for class that calls assignSeat package a2; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import java.awt.event.MouseMotionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.*; import javax.swing.event.*; imports for class that has assignSeat package a2; import java.util.ArrayList;

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Transient Extends problem

    - by mrvreddy
    @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

    Read the article

  • Generic that takes only numeric types (int double etc)?

    - by brandon
    In a program I'm working on, I need to write a function to take any numeric type (int, short, long etc) and shove it in to a byte array at a specific offset. There exists a Bitconverter.GetBytes() method that takes the numeric type and returns it as a byte array, and this method only takes numeric types. So far I have: private void AddToByteArray<T>(byte[] destination, int offset, T toAdd) where T : struct { Buffer.BlockCopy(BitConverter.GetBytes(toAdd), 0, destination, offset, sizeof(toAdd)); } So basically my goal is that, for example, a call to AddToByteArray(array, 3, (short)10) would take 10 and store it in the 4th slot of array. The explicit cast exists because I know exactly how many bytes I want it to take up. There are cases where I would want a number that is small enough to be a short to really take up 4 bytes. On the flip side, there are times when I want an int to be crunched down to just a single byte. I'm doing this to create a custom network packet, if that makes any ideas pop in to your heads. If the where clause of a generic supported something like "where T : int || long || etc" I would be ok. (And no need to explain why they don't support that, the reason is fairly obvious) Any help would be greatly appreciated! Edit: I realize that I could just do a bunch of overloads, one for each type I want to support... but I'm asking this question because I want to avoid precisely that :)

    Read the article

  • calculating the index of an array C#

    - by Kerry G
    I want to display a list of the answers a student entered incorrectly. How do I identify the index of these questions? I am hoping to change the contents of a textbox to a list of the questions answered incorrectly, which would require calculating the index of each incorrect question. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication5 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } //return a pass/fail //return number of correct answers //return number of incorrect answers //return index figures of incorrect values public void examResults () { string[] correctAnswers = {B,D,A,A,C,A,B,A,C,D,B,C,D,A,D,C,C,B,D,A}; string[] studentResults = File.ReadAllLines("studentResults.txt"); var c = correctAnswers.Where((x, i) => x.Equals(studentResults[i])).Count(); if ( c <= 14) passFailBox.Text = "Student has failed the exam"; else passFailBox.Text = "Student has passed the exam"; numberCorrectBox.Text = "Student has answered" + c + "answers correctly"; int f; f= 21-c; numberIncorrectBox.Text = "Student has answered" + f + "answers incorrectly"; } } }

    Read the article

  • Rendering a CGPDFPage into a UIImage

    - by James Antrobus
    I'm trying to render a CGPDFPage (selected from a CGPDFDocument) into a UIImage to display on a view. I have the following code in MonoTouch which gets me part way there. RectangleF PDFRectangle = new RectangleF(0, 0, UIScreen.MainScreen.Bounds.Width, UIScreen.MainScreen.Bounds.Height); public override void ViewDidLoad () { UIGraphics.BeginImageContext(new SizeF(PDFRectangle.Width, PDFRectangle.Height)); CGContext context = UIGraphics.GetCurrentContext(); context.SaveState(); CGPDFDocument pdfDoc = CGPDFDocument.FromFile("test.pdf"); CGPDFPage pdfPage = pdfDoc.GetPage(1); context.DrawPDFPage(pdfPage); UIImage testImage = UIGraphics.GetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); pdfDoc.Dispose(); context.RestoreState(); UIImageView imageView = new UIImageView(testImage); UIGraphics.EndImageContext(); View.AddSubview(imageView); } A section of the CGPDFPage is displayed but rotated back-to-front and upside down. My question is, how do I select the full pdf page and flip it round to display correctly. I have seen a few examples using ScaleCTM and TranslateCTM but couldn't seem to get them working. Any examples in ObjectiveC are fine, I'll take all the help I can get :) Thanks

    Read the article

  • On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

    Read the article

  • C# function called after dependency property have been set

    - by mizipzor
    My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

    Read the article

  • Maven 3 plugin - How to programatically exclude a dependency and all its transitive dependencies?

    - by electrotype
    I'm developing a Maven 3 plugin and I want to exclude some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, when a configuration is set to true in the plugin. I don't want to use <exclusions> in the POM itself, even in a profile. I want to exclude those dependencies programatically. In fact, what I want is to prevent the dependency jars to be included in the final war (I'm building a war), when a plugin configuration is set to true. I tried : @Mojo(requiresDependencyResolution=ResolutionScope.COMPILE, name="compileHook",defaultPhase=LifecyclePhase.COMPILE) public class compileHook extends AbstractMojo { @Override public void execute() throws MojoExecutionException, MojoFailureException { // ... Set<Artifact> artifacts = this.project.getArtifacts(); for(Artifact artifact : artifacts) { if("org.package.to.remove".equalsIgnoreCase(artifact.getGroupId())) { artifact.setScope("provided"); } } // ... } } Since this occures at the compile phase, it will indeed remove the artifacts with a group id "org.package.to.remove" from having their jars included in the war when packaged. But this doesn't remove the transitive artifacts those dependencies add! What is the best way to programatically remove some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, from being included in a final .jar/.war?

    Read the article

  • StreamReader returning another char

    - by Fernando
    I'm trying to read the content of a file with a StreamReader, that receives a FileStream. The file has some spaces inside (char 32) and the StreamReader is reading them as 0 (char 48). The screenshot shows the FileStream buffer and the StreamReader buffer. Both have the value 32, but when I call Read(), it returns 48. Am I missing something here? By the way, the code is running under .NET Compact Framework. The code that reads the data: public void Read() { using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(InputStream, Encoding.ASCII)) { foreach (var property in DataObject.EnumerateProperties()) { OffsetInfo offset = property.GetTextOffset(); reader.BaseStream.Position = offset.Start - 1; StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(offset.Size); int count = 0; while (reader.Peek() >= 0 && count < offset.Size) { char c = (char)reader.Read(); if ((int)c != 32 && c != '\r' && c != '\n') { builder.Append(c); count++; } else { reader.BaseStream.Position++; } } property.SetValue(DataObject, Convert.ChangeType(builder.ToString(), property.PropertyType, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), null ); } } }

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 1:1 Relationship Identity Colums

    - by Hupperware
    I cannot for the life of me get two separate tables to save with a relationship and two identity columns. I keep getting errors like A dependent property in a ReferentialConstraint is mapped to a store-generated column. Column: 'OlsTerminalId'. I can't imagine that this setup is abnormal. [DataContract] public class OlsData { private static readonly DateTime theUnixEpoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, DateTimeKind.Utc); [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "id")] public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "created")] [NotMapped] public double Created { get { return (Timestamp - theUnixEpoch).TotalMilliseconds; } set { Timestamp = theUnixEpoch.AddMilliseconds(value); } } [InverseProperty("OlsData")] [DataMember(Name = "terminal")] public virtual OlsTerminal OlsTerminal { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class OlsTerminal { [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsTerminalId { get; set; } public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "account")] [NotMapped] public virtual OlsAccount OlsAccount { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "terminalId")] public string TerminalId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "merchantId")] public string MerchantId { get; set; } public virtual OlsData OlsData { get; set; } } public class OlsDataContext : DbContext { protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder aModelBuilder) { aModelBuilder.Conventions.Remove<PluralizingTableNameConvention>(); } public OlsDataContext(string aConnectionString) : base(aConnectionString) {} public DbSet<OlsData> OlsData { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsTerminal> OlsTerminal { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsAccount> OlsAccount { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

    - by Morinar
    This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Threads are blocked in malloc and free, virtual size

    - by Albert Wang
    Hi, I'm running a 64-bit multi-threaded program on the windows server 2003 server (X64), It run into a case that some of the threads seem to be blocked in the malloc or free function forever. The stack trace is like follows: ntdll.dll!NtWaitForSingleObject() + 0xa bytes ntdll.dll!RtlpWaitOnCriticalSection() - 0x1aa bytes ntdll.dll!RtlEnterCriticalSection() + 0xb040 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlpDebugPageHeapAllocate() + 0x2f6 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlDebugAllocateHeap() + 0x40 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlAllocateHeapSlowly() + 0x5e898 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlAllocateHeap() - 0x1711a bytes MyProg.exe!malloc(unsigned __int64 size=0) Line 168 C MyProg.exe!operator new(unsigned __int64 size=1) Line 59 + 0x5 bytes C++ ntdll.dll!NtWaitForSingleObject() ntdll.dll!RtlpWaitOnCriticalSection() ntdll.dll!RtlEnterCriticalSection() ntdll.dll!RtlpDebugPageHeapFree() ntdll.dll!RtlDebugFreeHeap() ntdll.dll!RtlFreeHeapSlowly() ntdll.dll!RtlFreeHeap() MyProg.exe!free(void * pBlock=0x000000007e8e4fe0) C BTW, the param values passed to the new operator is not correct here maybe due to optimization. Also, at the same time, I found in the process Explorer, the virtual size of this program is 10GB, but the private bytes and working set is very small (<2GB). We did have some threads using virtualalloc but in a way that commit the memory in the call, and these threads are not blocked. m_pBuf = VirtualAlloc(NULL, m_size, MEM_COMMIT, PAGE_READWRITE); ...... VirtualFree(m_pBuf, 0, MEM_RELEASE); This looks strange to me, seems a lot of virtual space is reserved but not committed, and malloc/free is blocked by lock. I'm guessing if there's any corruptions in the memory/object, so plan to turn on gflag with pageheap to troubleshoot this. Does anyone has similar experience on this before? Could you share with me so I may get more hints? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • How to setPage() a JEditorPane with a localfile which is outside of the .jar file?

    - by Jaguar
    My program has the following path in the .jar file src/test/Program.class and my program is as follow... Program.java package test; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class Program { JEditorPane editorPane; public Program() { File file = new File("temp.htm"); try { file.createNewFile(); editorPane = new JEditorPane(); editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public JEditorPane getEditorPane(){ return editorPane; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); Program p = new Program(); frame.getContentPane().add(p.getEditorPane()); } } The problem is that I have compiled the program in a .jar file. The file.createNewFile(); creates the temp.htm file outside the .jar file So when editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); is called the file is not found as it searches for file inside the test package. How to setPage() the temp.htm file whiich is outside the .jar file but in the same folder as the .jar file? As the temp.htm is a localfile and I want a relative path instead of an absolute path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Windows Phone - failing to get a string from a website with login information

    - by jumantyn
    I am new to accessing web services with Windows Phone 7/8. I'm using a WebClient to get a string from a php-website. The site returns a JSON string but at the moment I'm just trying to put it into a TextBox as a normal string just to test if the connection works. The php-page requires an authentication and I think that's where my code is failing. Here's my code: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUsername", "myPassword"); client.DownloadStringCompleted += new DownloadStringCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadStringCompleted); client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri("https://www.mywebsite.com/ba/php/jsonstuff.php")); void client_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { try { string data = e.Result; this.jsonText.Text = data; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } This returns first a WebException and then a TargetInvocationException. If I replace the Uri with for example "http://www.google.com/index.html" the jsonText TextBox gets filled with html text from Google (oddly enough, this also works even when the WebClient credentials are still set). So is the problem in the setting of the credentials? I couldn't find any good results when searching for guides on how to access php-pages with credentials, only without them. Then I found a short mention somewhere to use the WebClient.Credentials property. But should it work some other way? Update: here's what I can get out of the WebException (sorry for the bad formatting): System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. ---System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClasse.b_d(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.WebClient.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request, IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadBitsResponseCallback(IAsyncResult result)

    Read the article

  • How is an AppDelegate instanciated?

    - by pwny
    I have an iOS application for which I want to create a ViewController programmatically. I started an empty XCode project and modified the main method so it looks like this int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; int retVal = UIApplicationMain(argc, argv, nil, @"MyAppDelegate_iPad"); [pool release]; return retVal; } The app is a Universal Application, MyAppDelegate_iPad is a subclass of MyAppDelegate, which is a subclass of NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate>. My problem is that the applicationDidFinishLoading method I've overridden in MyAppDelegate_iPad is never called (break point on the first line never hits). The method looks like this -(void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; if(!window) { [self release]; return; } window.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; rootController = [[MyViewController alloc] init]; [window addSubview:rootController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [window layoutSubviews]; } I removed the line to link to a nib file from my plist file (I used to get the default "My Universal app on iPad" white screen) and now all that is displayed is a black screen. applicationDidFinishLoading is still not being called. Am I doing something wrong? How should I properly create my AppDelegate instance?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839  | Next Page >