Search Results

Search found 38569 results on 1543 pages for 'database developer'.

Page 639/1543 | < Previous Page | 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646  | Next Page >

  • Iterate over rows/checkboxes in a RadGrid

    - by ChessWhiz
    Hi, I have a Telerik RadGrid with a GridTemplateColumn that contains a checkbox, as follows: <telerik:GridTemplateColumn HeaderText="MINE" UniqueName="MyTemplateColumn"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox id="MyCheckBox" runat="server"></asp:CheckBox> </ItemTemplate> </telerik:GridTemplateColumn> I want to set the box to be "checked" based on a value read from the database. I could handle the ItemDataBound event and read the database when each row is bound, but that results in n lookups. Instead, I want to handle DataBound, and then set all the values at once. So, in that method, I want code like this: // read all values from database first, then... foreach(var chkbox in MyRadGrid.MasterTableView.Columns.FindByUniqueName("MyTemplateColumn").FindControl("MyCheckBox")) { chkbox.Checked = oneValue; } That doesn't work, because FindControl isn't a method of GridColumn, and it won't generate an iterable list of the checkboxes. What is the correct way to iterate through the checkboxes in the template column? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Exception "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction" using TransactionScope

    - by Lanfear
    We have a web service on server #1 and a database on server #2. Web service uses transaction scope to produce distributed transaction. Everything is correct. And we have another database on server #3. We had some problems with this server and we reinstalled operation system and software. We configured MSDTC and tried to use web service from server #1 to communicate with database on this server. And now after first select statement within transaction scope we get: "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction". This exception falls in every web service request if it is using transaction scope. Server #2 and Server #3 is almost similar. The difference can be only in settings. .NET framework 3.5 SP1 installed and SQL Server SP3 on all servers. Full stacktrace: System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) ? System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() ? NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.GetConnection() ? NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.OpenConnection() I searched this message but didn't found any appropriate solution. So what settings should I check and what exactly should I do to fix it?

    Read the article

  • InvalidOperationException when calling SaveChanges in .NET Entity framework

    - by Pär Björklund
    Hi, I'm trying to learn how to use the Entity framework but I've hit an issue I can't solve. What I'm doing is that I'm walking through a list of Movies that I have and inserts each one into a simple database. This is the code I'm using private void AddMovies(DirectoryInfo dir) { MovieEntities db = new MovieEntities(); foreach (DirectoryInfo d in dir.GetDirectories()) { Movie m = new Movie { Name = d.Name, Path = dir.FullName }; db.AddToMovies(movie); } db.SaveChanges(); } When I do this I get an exception at db.SaveChanges() that read. The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: AcceptChanges cannot continue because the object's key values conflict with another object in the ObjectStateManager. Make sure that the key values are unique before calling AcceptChanges. I haven't been able to find out what's causing this issue. My database table contains three columns Id int autoincrement Name nchar(255) Path nchar(255) Update: I Checked my edmx file and the SSDL section have the StoreGeneratedPattern="Identity" as suggested. I also followed the blog post and tried to add ClientAutoGenerated="true" and StoreGenerated="true" in the CSDL as suggested there. This resulted in compile errors ( Error 5: The 'ClientAutoGenerated' attribute is not allowed.). Since the blog post is from 2006 and it has a link to a follow up post I assume it's been changed. However, I cannot read the followup post since it seems to require an msdn account.

    Read the article

  • Mixed surrogate composite key insert in JPA 2.0, PostgreSQL and Hibernate 3.5

    - by Gerald
    First off, we are using JPA 2.0 and Hibernate 3.5 as persistence provider on a PostgreSQL database. We successfully use the sequence of the database via the JPA 2.0 annotations as an auto-generated value for single-field-surrogate-keys and all works fine. Now we are implementing a bi-temporal database-scheme that requires a mixed key in the following manner: Table 1: id (pk, integer, auto-generated-sequence) validTimeBegin (pk, dateTime) validTimeEnd (dateTime) firstName (varChar) Now we have a problem. You see, if we INSERT a new element, the field id is auto-generated and that's fine. Only, if we want to UPDATE the field within this scheme, then we have to change the validTimeBegin column WITHOUT changing the id-field and insert it as a new row like so: BEFORE THE UPDATE OF THE ROW: |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | NULL | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| AFTER THE UPDATE OF THE ROW happening at exactly 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 server-time: (we update the person with the id:1 to reflect his new first name...) |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | NULL | Jerry | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| So our problem is, that this doesn't work at all using an auto-generated-sequence for the field id because when inserting a new row then the id ALWAYS is auto-generated although it really is part of a composite key which should sometimes behave differently. So my question is: Is there a way to tell hibernate via JPA to stop auto-generating the id-field in the case I want to generate a new variety of the same person and go on as usual in every other case or do I have to take over the whole id-generation with custom code? Thanks in advance, Gerald

    Read the article

  • .NET "must-have" development tools

    - by nzpcmad
    James Avery wrote a classic article a while back entitled Ten Must-Have Tools Every Developer Should Download Now which is a companion to Visual Studio Add-Ins Every Developer Should Download Now and Scott Hanselman has an excellent list on his blog but if you were on a desert island and were only allowed three .NET development tools which ones would you pick? Update: Assuming you already have an IDE like Visual Studio ... Update (5) : Up to 08/01 : The current state of play: Reflector 13 Resharper 9 NUnit + TestDriven.Net 7 Refactor Pro 4 Process Explorer (other Sysinternals) 3 SnippetCompiler 3 CodeRush 3 MSDN Library 2 LinqPad 2 Cruisecontrol.net 2 VMWare 2 RhinoMocks 2 Fiddler 2 PowerShell 2 PowerCommands for VS 2008 1 Sandcastle 1 SQL Profiler 1 Redgate ANTS profiler 11 NCover 1 VisualSVN 1 Rubber Ducky 1 WinMerge 1 NAnt 1 ViEmu 1 AnkhSVN 1 dotTrace Profiler 1 BeyondCompare 1 DPack VS Plugin 1 WCF Trace Viewer (SDK) 1 xUnit.net 1 SourceGear DiffMerge 1 Ghostdoc 1 Expression Studio 1 XAML Pad 1 KaXaml 1 Blender for 3D modeling 1 Snoop a WPF tool 1 DiffMerge 1 DPack 1 NDepend 1 Kodos 1 WatiN 1 HTTPWatch Basic Edition 1 Paint.Net 1 Mole For VS 1 What I find particularly interesting about this is that "NUnit + TestDriven.Net " is right up there in third place which shows the growing emphasis on testing as an integral part of the development process rather than as an adjunct which is simply bolted on. And I'm somewhat perplexed that Codesmith didn't receive a single vote?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate SubclassMap gives DuplicateMappingException

    - by stiank81
    I'm using NHibernate to handle my database - with Fluent configuration. I'm not using Automappings. All mappings are written explicitly, and everything is working just fine. Now I wanted to add my first mapping to a subclass, using the SubclassMap, and I run into problems. With the simplest possible setup an Nhibernate DuplicateMappingException is thrown, saying that the subclass is mapped more than once: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping MyNamespace.SubPerson I get this with my simple classes written for testing: public class Person { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class SubPerson : Person { public string Foo { get; set; } } With the following mappings: public class PersonMapping : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.Id); Map(c => c.Name); } } public class SubPersonMapping : SubclassMap<SubPerson> { public SubPersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Map(m => m.Foo); } } Any idea why this is happening? If there were automappings involved I guess it might have been caused by the automappings adding a mapping too, but there should be no automapping. I create my database specifying a fluent mapping: private static ISession CreateSession() { var cfg = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().UsingFile("unit_test.db")). Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<SomeClassInTheAssemblyContainingAllMappings>()); var sessionSource = new SessionSource(cfg.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new TestModel()); var session = sessionSource.CreateSession(); _sessionSource.BuildSchema(session); return session; } Again; note that this only happens with SubclassMap. ClassMap's are working just fine!

    Read the article

  • WPF Richtextbox XamlWriter behaviour

    - by Krishna
    I am trying to save some c# source code into the database. Basically I have a RichTextBox that users can type their code and save that to the database. When I copy and paste from the visual studio environment, I would like to preserve the formating etc. So I have chosen to save the FlowDocuments Xaml to the database and set this back to the RichTextBox.Document. My below two function serialise and deserialise the RTB's contents. private string GetXaml(FlowDocument document) { if (document == null) return String.Empty; else{ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); XmlWriter xw = XmlWriter.Create(sb); XamlDesignerSerializationManager sm = new XamlDesignerSerializationManager(xw); sm.XamlWriterMode = XamlWriterMode.Expression; XamlWriter.Save(document, sm ); return sb.ToString(); } } private FlowDocument GetFlowDocument(string xamlText) { var flowDocument = new FlowDocument(); if (xamlText != null) flowDocument = (FlowDocument)XamlReader.Parse(xamlText); // Set return value return flowDocument; } However when I try to serialise and deserialise the following code, I am noticing this incorrect(?) behaviour using System; public class TestCSScript : MarshalByRefObject { } Serialised XAML is using System; public class TestCSScript : MarshalByRefObject {}{ } Notice the the new set of "{}" What am I doing wrong here... Thanks in advance for the help!

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 - Enable Network DTC Access

    - by Russ Clark
    I have a Visual Studio 2010 Windows Forms application in which I start a transaction using the TransactionScope class. I then Receive a message from a Sql Server Broker Services message queue, which works fine. I next try to call a stored procedure from the same database with a call to my data access layer which is a Visual Studio dataset (xsd file). When I make this second call to the database I get the following error message: The MSDTC transaction manager was unable to pull the transaction from the source transaction manager due to communication problems. Possible causes are: a firewall is present and it doesn't have an exception for the MSDTC process, the two machines cannot find each other by their NetBIOS names, or the support for network transactions is not enabled for one of the two transaction managers. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8004D02B). I've seen several posts on the web that talk about Enabling DTC access through dcomcnfg.exe, and allowing DTC to communicate through Windows Firewall. I've done those things, and am still having this problem. I know our remote database server is setup to Enable DTC access, because we are using similar transactions in other projects built with Visual Studio 2008 on Windows XP and Vista. I think there is something specific about Windows 7 and Visual Studio 2010 causing this problem, but haven't been able to find out what it is. Can anyone help with this problem?

    Read the article

  • AndroMDA maven code generation and JPA Annotations

    - by ArsenioM
    I am using the AndroMDA plugin for maven to generate code from an uml diagram made in MagicDraw. When the code is generated, AndroMDA desings the JPA annotation for the persitence layer. I think that at the compilation process AndroMDA uses Naming Strategies to determine the Table and Column names for the DataBase. I want to determine how AndroMDA desings this JPA annotations, because I need to display this DataBase names based on the UML entity and atributtes names. I was regarding if there is an API of AndroMDA that I could use to do this by giving it the uml diagram. Or at least, to know the Naming Strategies used by AndroMDA to achive that. AndroMDA at the compilation process design the JPA annotations for the Entities, Attributes, etc that are written in my java classes under a series of rules that exist within the EJB3 cartridge of AndroMDA. (The further Database is created using those JPA annotations). I want to create a program that returns me the same Table and Attributes names wrote on the JPA annotations, by giving it the .xml file of the uml diagram of a project. I was hoping that I could take advantage of the EJB3 cartridge to generate those Tables and Attribute names with my program. One way could be using an API of AndroMDA that do this(if it exits), or at least, by implementing the same rules used by the EJB3 cartridge for that matter. To be more illustrative, For example: If in my uml model I have an Entity called “CompanyGroup”, AndroMDA would generate the following code for the class definition: @javax.persistence.Entity @javax.persistence.Table(name = "COMPANY_GR") Public class CompanyGroup implements java.io.Serializable, Comparable< CompanyGroup This is just an example (not a real case), but nevertheless, the way how AndroMDA do the translation from “CompanyGroup” to “COMPANY_GR” has to be specified somewhere. Hope this explanation is useful enough. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • EF 4, POCO and AddOrUpdate

    - by Eric J.
    I'm trying to create a method on an EF 4 POCO repository called AddOrUpdate. The idea is that the business layer can pass in a POCO object and the persistence framework will add the object if it is new (not yet in the database), else will update the database (once SaveChanges() is called) with the new value. This is similar to some other questions I have asked about EF, but I'm only about 80% there in understanding this so please forgive partial duplication. The part I'm missing is how to update the object graph in my ObjectContext/associated ObjectSet for the passed-in business object once I have determined that the business object indeed already exists in the database (and now has been loaded thanks to TryGetObjectByKey). ApplyCurrentValues sounds sort of like what I want, but it only copies scalar values and doesn't seem intended to update the object graph in the ObjectContext/ObjectSet. Because of my particular use case I don't care about concurrency right now. public void AddOrUpdate(BO biz) { object obj; EntityKey ek = Ctx.CreateEntityKey(mySetName, biz); bool found = Ctx.TryGetObjectByKey(ek, out obj); if (found) { // How do I do what this method name implies? Biz is a parent with children. mySet.TellTheSetToUpdateThisObject(biz); } else { mySet.AddObject(biz); } Ctx.DetectChanges(); }

    Read the article

  • Pass dataset to subreport with SQL Server Reporting Services

    - by Juliet
    I'm using SQL Server Reporting Services and the report designer that comes with Visual Studio. I've got a really big report. It's actually so large that Visual Studio hangs (sometimes for hours at a time) or just crashes when I make changes. There is preciously little I can do to solve the problem, so I've decided to just move the bottom half of the report into a sub-report. So, I started with one enormous, unresponsive report and ended with two small, manageable reports -- surprisingly, this actually works. One problem: my subreport uses the same data as my main report. Right now, it populates its dataset by re-querying the database. The extra round-trip to the database causes the report to take twice as long to generate; up from 45 minutes to 1 1/2 hours to generate. I'd like to avoid hitting the database again, and instead use the same dataset in both reports. How can I share or pass a dataset between a report and subreport?

    Read the article

  • DataGridView row is still dirty after committing changes

    - by Ecyrb
    DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty remains true after I commit changes to the database. I want to set it to false so it doesn't trigger RowValidating when it loses focus. I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList<T>. I handle the CellEndEdit event and save changes to the database. After saving those changes I would like DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be set to true, since all cells in the row are up-to-date; however, it's set to false. This causes problems for me because when the row does lose focus it will trigger RowValidating, which I handle and validate all three cells in. So even though all the cells are valid and none are dirty it will still validate them all. That's a waste. Here's an example of what I have: void dataGridView_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { // Ignore cell if it's not dirty if (dataGridView.isCurrentCellDirty) return; // Validate current cell. } void dataGridView_RowValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellCancelEventArgs e) { // Ignore Row if it's not dirty if (!dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty) return; // Validate all cells in the current row. } void dataGridView_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { // Validate all cells in the current row and return if any are invalid. // If they are valid, save changes to the database // This is when I would expect dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be false. // When this row loses focus it will trigger RowValidating and validate all // cells in this row, which we already did above. } I've read posts that said I could call the form's Validate() method, but that will cause RowValidating to fire, which is what I'm trying to avoid. Any idea how I can set DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to true? Or maybe a way to prevent RowValidating from unnecessarily validating all the cells?

    Read the article

  • Problem loading Oracle client libraries when running in a NAnt build

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to use dbdeploy to manage Oracle schema changes. I can run it successfully from the command line to get it to generate my change scripts, but when I try to execute it via the dbdeploy NAnt task running through TeamCity, I get an error: System.Data.OracleClient requires Oracle client software version 8.1.7 or greater. I do have the Oracle 10.2.0.2 client software installed. It's the first entry in the system path, and the dbdeploy.exe app is able to successfully negotiate an Oracle connection. The dbdeploy code dynamically loads the System.Data.OracleClient assembly, which in-turn tries to use the Oracle client bits to talk to the database. This is what is failing in my NAnt environment. I have verified the following points: The same user identity is running the process in both cases The same working directory is used in both cases The same dbdeploy code is running in both cases and with the same supplied parameters The same database connection string is being used in both cases The same ADO.NET assembly is being dynamically loaded in both cases (System.Data.OracleClient, Version=1.0.5000.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089) Here's the top of the stack trace during the error: at System.Data.OracleClient.OCI.DetermineClientVersion() at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction (String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor( OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection( DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection( DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection( DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection( DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at Net.Sf.Dbdeploy.Database.DatabaseSchemaVersionManager. GetCurrentVersionFromDb() My main question is this: how can I discover what's different about these running environments to see why my Oracle client software can't be loaded?

    Read the article

  • Getting types of the attributes in an ActiveRecord object

    - by Michael Neale
    I would like to know if it is possible to get the types (as known by AR - eg in the migration script and database) programmatically (I know the data exists in there somewhere). For example, I can deal with all the attribute names: ar.attribute_names.each { |name| puts name } .attributes just returns a mapping of the names to their current values (eg no type info if the field isn't set). Some places I have seen it with the type information: in script/console, type the name of an AR entity: >> Driver => Driver(id: integer, name: string, created_at: datetime, updated_at: datetime) So clearly it knows the types. Also, there is .column_for_attribute, which takes an attr name and returns a column object - which has the type buried in the underlying database column object, but it doesn't appear to be a clean way to get it. I would also be interested in if there is a way that is friendly for the new "ActiveModel" that is coming (rails3) and is decoupled from database specifics (but perhaps type info will not be part of it, I can't seem to find out if it is). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Magento Developers: Is Magento really -that- good?

    - by Kevin
    We are looking at Magento as a possible commerce solution, but we are reading more bad than good on the free product. However Magento sells itself as the best thing ever, so I am confused on its actual value. Thought I'd ask the pros here. Can any seasoned developer here explain the difficulties in using Magento not only as a commerce solution, but a CMS solution? Can it do easy content management like Drupal, Joomla, etc? If I wanted a custom list of products, is that simple or do you have to spend hours learning where to create the code? Is it modular in the way Drupal is where you can say, here is my custom code, and interact with Magento and change some of its function? Is it difficult to conceive how it works from a developer, user, and customer standpoint? We don't use Zend Framework and are not familiar with Smarty syntax (which I think Magento uses for templating). The risk in my mind is that the learning curve will be really steep (especially for the designers), and trouble tickets may take a long time to resolve (resulting in some pissed off customers). Any thoughts from people who have used Magento extensively?

    Read the article

  • Orca: extracting files from merge module

    - by Mystagogue
    All I want is a command-line tool that can extract files from a merge module (.msm) onto disk. I looked up Orca (version 3.1), whose documentation states: Many merge module options can be specified from the command line... Extracting Files from a Merge Module Orca supports three different methods for extracting files contained in a merge module. Orca can extract the individual CAB file, extract the files into a module tree and extract the files into a source image once it has been merged into a target database... Extracting Files To extract the individual files from a merge module, use the ... -x ... option on the command line, where is the desired path to the new directory tree. The specified path is used as the root path for the extracted files. All files are extracted from the CAB file embedded in the module and placed in the specified path. The directory layout for the extracted files is based on the directory tree of the merge module. It mostly sounds like exactly what I need. But when I try it, orca simply opens up an editor (with info on the msm I specified) and then does nothing. I've tried a variety of command lines: orca -x theDirectory theModule.msm orca theModule.msm -x theDirectory ...and others. I get nowhere. The closest I've gotten was this: orca -q -x theDirectory -m theModule.msm ...but then it complains that I didn't specifiy a database to merge into. But I'm not trying to merge anything, no less into a database. I just want the files extracted. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong with the command line options?

    Read the article

  • Recommendations on developing a WPF application without using MVVM or similar

    - by Metro Smurf
    We were building out the next version of an in-house thick-client application using WPF/Prism (Composite Application Library). As we were nearly done with the client our team was put under new management and shortly thereafter: We were then directed to drop the Prism framework to keep things simple. This includes not using any type of Inversion of Control. We were directed to build out the WPF application without using MVVM or similar; and more along the lines of a traditional WinForm application. The idea is that if a developer sees a control in Visual Studio’s designer view, then (s)he should be able to click on the control and see exactly what it's doing without having to traverse through a view-model (or similar). We have now been tasked with building out the WPF application using one primary Window, use a Frame Control to contain the content, and use a Ribbon outside of the frame for the menu items. Reason we were provided to use Frame Control: a. We will show a view in the Frame with a Page (not a user control) and then load the page in the Frame. b. When a new view is to be shown in the Frame, the current view (Page) will be closed/disposed and the new view (Page) will take its place in the Frame. c. When a developer looks at the Page in design view, (s)he will be able to click on any control and see exactly what is being done. Given the restrictions of 1 and 2 above, we’d like to present another method of building out the application that: Can be presented as an alternative to using the “Frame Methodology” (item 3 above) but still provides the same type of functionality. Does not use MVVM (see #1 and #2 above). Provided the direction we’ve been given, any suggestions as to an alternative we can present? I’d request that the responses be kept on the professional level and thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Error creating Rails DB using rake db:create

    - by Simon
    Hi- I'm attempting to get my first "hello world" rails example going using the rails' getting started guide on my OSX 10.6.3 box. When I go to execute the first rake db:create command (I'm using mysql) I get: simon@/Users/simon/source/rails/blog/config: rake db:create (in /Users/simon/source/rails/blog) Couldn't create database for {"reconnect"=>false, "encoding"=>"utf8", "username"=>"root", "adapter"=>"mysql", "database"=>"blog_development", "pool"=>5, "password"=>nil, "socket"=>"/opt/local/var/run/mysql5/mysqld.sock"}, charset: utf8, collation: utf8_unicode_ci (if you set the charset manually, make sure you have a matching collation) I found plenty of stackoverflow questions addressing this problem with the following advice: Verify that user and password are correct (I'm running w/ no password for root on my dev box) Verify that the socket is correct - I can cat the socket, so I assume it's correct Verify that the user can create a DB (As you can see root can connect and create a this DB no problem) simon@/Users/simon/source/rails/blog/config: mysql -uroot -hlocalhost Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 16 Server version: 5.1.45 Source distribution Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql create database blog_development; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) Any idea on what might be going on here?

    Read the article

  • what's wrong with sql statements sqlite3_column_text ??

    - by ahmet732
    if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], & database) == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"DB OPENED"); // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access const char *sqlStatement ="select name from Medicine"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; int result = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, nil); NSLog(@"RESULT %d", result); if(result == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"RESULT IS OK..."); // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row NSLog(@"WHILE IS OK"); **araci = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)];** NSLog(@"Data read"); NSLog(@"wow: %",araci); }//while }//if sqlite_prepare v2 // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); NSLog(@"compiled stmnt finalized.."); } sqlite3_close(database); NSLog(@"MA_DB CLOSED"); Questions 1 ) Everything is alright until bold code. when i run the app, throws an exception below. I have one table and one row in my db relatively, id (integer), name (varchar), desc (varchar) (I created my table using SQLite Manager). 2-) What is text type in SQLite Manager? Is that NSString? Also how can I put the string values(in table) to an NSMutableArray ? (I am really having difficulty in conversion.) *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** +[NSString stringWithUTF8String:]: NULL cString'

    Read the article

  • How do you clean Core Data generated models and code from a project?

    - by Hazmit
    I'm having an extremely annoying problem with Core Data in the iPhone SDK. I would say in general Core Data for the most part appears easy to use and nice to implement. I have a sqlite database that is being used as a read only reference to pull data elements out for an iPhone app. It would seem there are really mysterious issues relating to what seems to be migration of the database to the most recent versions of my schema. Why can't you just clean out your stored objects and models and let a project redo all of it when you compile next? You would think if you setup a stored object model there would be a way to just reset it and recompile. I've tried what feels like a thousand 'tips' that have been the results of hours of google searches and documentation prowling to figure out how to do this. My most recent error during compile time is below. 2010-04-07 18:23:51.891 PE[1962:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Can't merge models with two different entities named 'PElement'' All of this code has been working in the simulator and is only causing me troubles now because I made a change to the schema. I also have the database options for automatically migrating set as below. NSMutableDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; [optionsDictionary setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; [optionsDictionary setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption];

    Read the article

  • Setting up an efficient and effective development process

    - by christopher-mccann
    I am in the midst of setting up the development environment (PHP/MySQL) for my start-up. We use three sets of servers: LIVE - the servers which provide the actual application TEST - providing a testing version before it is actually released DEV - the development servers The development servers run SVN with each developer checking out their local copy. At the end of each day completed fixes are checked in and then we use Hudson to automate our build process and then transfer it over to TEST. We then check the application still functions correctly using a tester and then if everything is fine move it to LIVE. I am happy with this process but I do have two questions: How would you recommend we do local testing - as each developer adds new pages or changes functionality I want them to be able to test what they are doing. Would you just setup local Apache and a local database and have them test locally on their own machine? How would you recommend dealing with data layer changes? Is there anything else you would recommend doing to really make our development process as easy and efficient as possible? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to mass insert/update in linq to sql?

    - by chobo2
    Hi How can I do these 2 scenarios. Currently I am doing something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record // save record ( dbcontext.submitChanges() } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) // dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } So now I am trying to load an XML file what has tons of records. First I validate the records one at a time. I then want to insert them into the database but instead of doing submitChanges() after each record I want to do a mass submit at the end. So I have something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) } public void SaveToDb() { dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } Then in my service layer I would do like for(int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { validate(); if(valid == true) { update(); insert() } } SaveToDb(); So pretend my for loop is has a count for all the record found in the xml file. I first validate it. If valid then I have to update a table before I insert the record. I then insert the record. After that I want to save everything in one go. I am not sure if I can do a mass save when updating of if that has to be after every time or what. But I thought it would work for sure for the insert one. Nothing seems to crash and I am not sure how to check if the records are being added to the dbcontext.

    Read the article

  • Good locations worldwide for a coder gypsy wannabe

    - by fung
    Yes, this is not programming related but please bear with me =). I run a small niche SaaS business. Lately I've been thinking of traveling and experiencing life in other places. Would really appreciate suggestions for good places a developer could relocate to. In particular I'm looking for a place that: Has good internet connection (cheap stable broadband, lots of places that provide free wifi, etc.) Low cost of living (rent and food fairly cheap). At least half of the population speak English. Has a local courier agent (DHL, Fedex, any...). The government allows for extended stay of foreigners. I'm thinking of staying for about 6 months at each location and maybe doing it for 3 years. So looking for 5 to 6 locations in total. So if any of you think you're staying in a place that would be great for a visiting developer then please shout out. Include as detailed a description as possible. And include any cons about the place if there are. The only place that pops to mind right now is Bali =). Isle of Skye also seems interesting but I think immigration is tight and cost of living would definitely be higher. Thanks in advance for suggestions =)

    Read the article

  • Need advice or pointers on Release Management Strategies

    - by Murray
    I look after an internal web based (Java, JSP, Mediasurface, etc.) system that is in constant use (24/5). Users raise tickets for enhancements, bug fixes and other business changes. These issues are signed off individually and assigned to one of three or four developers. Once the issue is complete it is built and the code only committed to SVN. The changed files (templates, html, classes, jsp) are then copied to a dev server and committed to a different repository from where they are checked out to the UAT server for testing. (this often requires the Tomcat service to be restarted and occasionally the Mediasurface service as well). The users then test and either reject or approve the release. If approved the edited files are checked out to the Live server and the same process as with UAT undertaken. If rejected the developer makes the relevant changes and starts the release process again. This is all done manually without much control. Where different developers are working on similar files, changes sometimes get overwritten by builds done on out of sync code in other cases changes in UAT are moved to live in error as they are mixed up in files associated with a signed off release. I would like to move this to a more controlled and automated process where all source code and output files are held in SVN and releases to Dev, UAT and Live managed by a CI system (We have TeamCity in house for our .NET applications). My question is on how to manage the releases of multiple changes where some will be signed off and moved on and others rejected and returned to the developer. The changes may be on overlapping files and simply merging each release in to a Release Branch means that the rejected changes would have to be backed out of the branch. Is there a way to manage this using SVN and CI or will I simply have to live with the current system.

    Read the article

  • When to use RDLC over RDL reports?

    - by Daan
    I have been studying SSRS 2005 / 2008 in the past weeks and have created some server side reports. For some application, a colleague suggested that I look into RDLC for that particular situation. I am now trying to get my head around the main difference between RDL and RDLC. Searching for this information yields fragmented information at best. I have learned that: RDLC reports do not store information about how to get data. RDLC reports can be executed directly by the ReportViewer control. But I still don't fully understand the relation between the RDLC file and the other related systems (the Reporting Server, the source database, the client). In order to get a good grasp on RDLC files, I would like to know how their use differs from RDL files and in what situation one would choose RDLC over RDL. Links to resources are also welcome. Update: A thread on the ASP.NET forums discusses this same issue. From it, I have gained some better understanding on the issue. A feature of RDLC is that it can be run completely client-side in the ReportViewer control. This removes the need for a Reporting Services instance, and even removes the need for any database connection whatsoever, but: It adds the requirement that the data that is needed in the report has to be provided manually. Whether this is an advantage or a disadvantage depends on the particular application. In my application, an instance of Reporting Services is available anyway and the required data for the reports can easily be pulled from a database. Is there any reason left for me to consider RDLC, or should I simply stick with RDL?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646  | Next Page >